[Grammar] I don't see and advantage in Sarah being promoted.

[nininaz]

Hello Teachers,
In the following sentence:
"I don't see an advantage in Sarah being promoted."
why should we use "gerund" on the mentioned sentence?!
because being promoted is subject of gerund or Sarah who is being promoted or because of "in" as preposition we use continues form?!
Source:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4cghK-Te6oA

Thanks.

 

[MikeNewYork]

As written, it is not a gerund, it is a participle. It would be a gerund if the "Sarah" were changed to "Sarah's".

 

[nininaz]

As written, it is not a gerund, it is a participle. It would be a gerund if the "Sarah" were changed to "Sarah's".

Thanks,But at the following source it is as a gerund not participle !
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4cghK-Te6oA

 

[MikeNewYork]

With all respect to your source, I disagree. A gerund always functions as a noun. In you r sentence there is no place for a noun after Sarah. If her name was changed to a possessive adjective, then the noun would work.

Jane doesn't like John drinking on the weekend. In this case, the -ing word is a participle that describes John.
Jane doesn't like John's drinking on the weekend. In this case, the -ing word is a noun and John's is an adjective.

 

[Tdol]

But at the following source it is as a gerund not participle

Mike is right, but many would consider it to be a gerund.

 

[MikeNewYork]

I will never accept that gerunds and participles are the same.

 

[Tdol]

No, but when people use object pronouns, they're usually still thinking of it as a gerund.

 

[MikeNewYork]

It's not an objective pronoun unless it is preceded by a possessive adjective.