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    #1

    They are no longer the same

    1. They are no longer the same Iranians that came to us last year for signing the deal.

    2. There are no longer the same Iranians that came to us last year to sign the deal.

    I want to understand that why in 1st sentence " signing" is gerund whereas in 2nd sentence the same is used as Noun. Does it because of change in preposition? I understand that if we use any verb after preposition it would be gerund only.

  1. Roman55's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: They are no longer the same

    I am not a teacher.


    Do you mean that they are not the same Iranians that came last year? 'They are no longer the same Iranians…' doesn't make sense.


    Sentence 1. is not grammatical.


    'To sign the deal' is correct.

  2. MikeNewYork's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: They are no longer the same

    In my opinion, both of your sentences are correct. In the first, "signing" is a gerund noun that functions as the object of the preposition "for". In the second, "to sign" is an infinitive. It introduces an infinitive phrase that acts as an adverb modifying the verb "came".

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    #4

    Re: They are no longer the same

    Originally posted by MikeNew York:
    In my opinion, both of your sentences are correct. In the first, "signing" is a gerund noun that functions as the object of the preposition "for". In the second, "to sign" is an infinitive. It introduces an infinitive phrase that acts as an adverb modifying the verb "came".
    Does it means that "to" is not preposition here? My doubt is: After preposition if we use verb it must be gerund noun then in case of "to sign" why this has not been followed. Please clarify
    Last edited by emsr2d2; 22-May-2015 at 07:56. Reason: Added quote box and name

  3. MikeNewYork's Avatar
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    #5

    Re: They are no longer the same

    With an infinitive, "to" is a particle. It acts as an infinitive marker. It is unfortunate that is the same word as the preposition.

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    #6

    Re: They are no longer the same

    Thank you very much for your reply. It helped me clear my doubt.

    Just to understand further the "infinitive phrase":

    He wants to swim.

    1)"To swim" is infinitive phrase and swim is verb but since we have added "to" so it becomes infinitive phrase. Am I correct ?
    2) "To swim" is object of the "wants". In abiove sentence "to sign" was adverb of came. Here what part of speech "to swim" is?

  4. MikeNewYork's Avatar
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    #7

    Re: They are no longer the same

    Technically, "to swim" is not an infinitive phrase. It is an infinitive. Both words add up to an infinitive. An infinitive phrase has other words, such as "to swim the English Channel". In that case, "the English Channel" is the object of the infinitive "to swim". In your sentence "to swim" is an infinitive acting as a noun. It is the object of the verb "wants".

  5. emsr2d2's Avatar
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    #8

    Re: They are no longer the same

    I still don't understand "They are no longer the same Iranians". Do you mean that they are the same people but their personalities have changed beyond all recognition or do you mean that they are actually different people?
    Remember - if you don't use correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing, anything you write will be incorrect.

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    #9

    Re: They are no longer the same

    They are same Iranians but their perception got change as compared to last year.

  6. Matthew Wai's Avatar
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    #10

    Re: They are no longer the same

    May I say that 'They are no longer Iranians with the same perception'?

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