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    #1

    I am glad

    1) I am glad to see you.
    It has been pleasure to see you.

    2) Why didn't you come that day.
    Why didn't you come on that day.

    3) He has remembered you.
    He has asked for you.

    Are the above sentences correct and do they convey the same meaning respectively?

  1. teechar's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: I am glad

    Quote Originally Posted by suniljain View Post
    It has been a pleasure to see you.
    No, they do not mean the same thing.

  2. emsr2d2's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: I am glad

    Both versions of 2 are wrong because they don't end with a question mark.
    Remember - if you don't use correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing, anything you write will be incorrect.

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    #4

    Re: I am glad

    Quote Originally Posted by suniljain View Post
    3) He has remembered you.
    He has asked for you.
    They are correct but they do not mean the same.

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    #5

    Re: I am glad

    Quote Originally Posted by teechar View Post
    No, they do not mean the same thing.
    I understand when we meet someone we can say either of the following:

    1) I am glad to see you.
    It has been a pleasure to see you.

    Please correct me if I am wrong.

  3. emsr2d2's Avatar
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    #6

    Re: I am glad

    It's difficult to try to compare your sentences because there are so many differences between them. The first is written in the present tense and uses "glad" (adjective). The second is written in the present perfect and uses "a pleasure" (noun).

    We could add dozens of alternatives that you can say in various situations where you are meeting someone or you have just finished meeting with them and you are leaving (that would be the situation for your second sentence.
    Remember - if you don't use correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing, anything you write will be incorrect.

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