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  1. keannu's Avatar
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    #1

    hese have the child’s family name

    Japanese preschools give their students a strong feeling of being part of a group. One way this feeling is created is with school uniforms. Each preschool has its own uniform, and they vary in design and color. In preschools where the parents cannot afford uniforms, name tags are issued ; these have the child’s family name, given name, preschool name, and name of the class written on them.The children are often collectively called by this class name when the teachers are speaking to them. All of this provides the children with a sense of belonging.

    ================================================== ==
    Which does "these" refer to? "preschools" or "name tags"?
    Can it be interpreted as 2? If not, what is the reason?

    1. "Name tags" possess (things) on "name tags" - possessive meaning
    2. "Preschools" get (things) written on name tags (by someone)" - causative verb

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    #2

    Re: hese have the child’s family name

    'These' refers to name tags.

  2. keannu's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: hese have the child’s family name

    Why can't it refer to preschools? Why can't "have" function as a causative verb?

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    #4

    Re: hese have the child’s family name

    It wouldn't make sense to have the children's details written on the preschool.

  3. keannu's Avatar
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    #5

    Re: hese have the child’s family name

    Somebody argues these refers to preschools, while them to name tags. But it seems that "them" refers to "these" in the same sentence, not to far things in previous sentences, but someone says "them " is a dangling modifier, which is hard to understand.

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    #6

    Re: hese have the child’s family name

    'Somebody' is talking nonsense.

    'These' and 'them' both refer to name tags. Nothing else makes sense and there is no dangling modifier anywhere in the paragraph.

  4. tzfujimino's Avatar
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    #7

    Re: hese have the child’s family name

    Welcome back, keannu.


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