Your first sentence is marginal. The second is incorrect. The opening marks it as present tense, but the ending indicates a past action.
Interested in Language
I am learning nonfinite verb now.
1. He is said to be doing his homework.
2. He is said to be doing his homework at seven o'clock yesterday evening.
Do both sentences work grammatically and logically?
What I here would like to know is whether progressive tense of infinitive can be used to describe something happening now or happening sometime in the past.
Thanks a lot!!!
Would the second be grammatical if 'have been' was used instead of 'be'?
It's possible grammatically.
Last edited by Rover_KE; 05-Aug-2015 at 08:21. Reason: Fixing typo
But it would sound to me as if 'He is said to have been doing his homework for a period of time at seven o'clock yesterday evening'. Am I right or wrong?
Not a teacher.
Yes, you can say "He is said to have been doing ..." or "He was said to be doing ..." If the action is in the past, you need some indication about that in the tenses you use.
This would be more naturally expressed as "They say/said he was doing ...", but I realise that doesn't help you learn the infinitive.