In twenty years of teaching, I've never come across that rule.Originally Posted by Casiopea
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Huh? That's news to me too. Where did you find that? Let me know. I'm interested in checking it out further. :DOriginally Posted by jwschang
With regard to "I am (situated) here (by X's doing)", reflexive, here modifies situated, a participle: I am situated (participle) in this location (prepositional phrase). predicate adjective
Originally Posted by Casiopea
Yes. I agree with you there. I was only testing it out to show you that I agreed with you. :DOriginally Posted by jwschang
Oh, I'm not letting you off that easy. :D I took the time to think over your analysis. I'm waiting for you to further prove to me that 'going to' is a predicate adjective. Please. :DOriginally Posted by jwschang
In twenty years of teaching, I've never come across that rule.Originally Posted by Casiopea
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1a He was hoping to eat.
==> He was hoping [that she would eat]. (SV[O])
==> He was hoping [PRO to eat]. (SV[O])
1b. He was eating.
==> He was eating. (SV)
1c. He was going to eat. (Main verb?)
There are two possibilities: 1d and 1e.
1d. He was going [up the stairs]. (SV[O]) progressive/continuous
1e. He was going to go [up the stiars]. (SV[O]) not prog/contin.
1d is the same as 1a and 1b; They are all progressive/continuous.
1e is different from 1d, 1a, and 1b.
6. He was about to eat.
==> was about to (inceptive, i.e. start(ed) to do something)
I agree. Mind you, modals cannot function as predicate adjectives (e.g. *I am ought.) So where then does that leave 'going to'?Originally Posted by jwschang
Right. I am going home = I am traveling home, whereas I am going to go home = I am planning on traveling home.Originally Posted by jwschang
Right. The reason being, going to is transitive, whereas going (e.g. I am going. See you.) is intransitive. Note, go of I am going to go is also instransitive.Originally Posted by jwschang
First, we know that going and going to are different. The former expresses a present continuity, whereas the latter expresses a future intention:Originally Posted by jwschang
1) be going = progressive continuous
2) be going to = future intention, modality
Second, what does being ubiquitous have to do with modality? I'm lost.
Third, within the verb phrase am going the word am is the auxiliary. Similarly, within the verb phrase am going to eat the word am is the auxiliary.
A: I am going. main verb (aux+V-ing) intrans.
B: I am going to eat. main verb (aux+V-ing+object) trans.
In short,
A: be going = progressive continuous
B: be going to = future intention, modality (This is not a new idea)
:D
Mygawd. I'm not even 20 yetOriginally Posted by tdol
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Joking :D
No, I'm not trying to prove that "going to" is a predicate adjective. I'm saying that if, as in the examples I gave, "going" is not in fact expressing the continuous tense (I'm talking only about the present and past continuous, not the future or perfect continuous tenses) but is behaving more like an auxiliary, then in those sentences the phrase headed by going is a predicate adjective phrase (or an adverb predicate phrase, etc).Originally Posted by Casiopea
That's because "going", in its currently deemed usage as a continuous tense, is used with "be" (am/is/are/was/were) as the auxiliary. So, if it's not expressing the continuous, it's got to be part of the predicate that "Be" links to its subject.
I raised this to invite some thinking from "you kind people". I'm not arguing strongly for my case, just IMO the usage of "going" doesn't seem quite as forming the continuous tense (except of course when it actually means going somewhere, and not futurity or intention). So, it's got you thinking and analysing, and disputing this "contention", which is exactly why I'm thanking you!!!!! :) :wink:![]()
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But I'm not declining the debate either. Only thing is, now and again, I'm off the Net for days on end because of my book! So, I do look forward to more from you (and TDOL, Ron, and whoever else thinks this subject is worthy of thought and debate). If you and everybody else had just ignored this posting, uh.......poor me. :wink:
It's not a rule like such as Concord. It's concluded from certain grammar books where the writers classify and deal with the usage of phrases. One is "Basic English Review" by Schacter/Clark/Schneiter, which is used by communication and English teachers in one of the universities here. This particular book classifies phrases into prepositional, infinitive and participial phrases, with the first two (but not the last) as being applicable as adverbs. I was referring to such classifications (I guessed the writers are pretty authoritative grammarians), so I wondered "why so" and "who laid this down". So, it's me putting it wrongly by saying it's some sort of "rule", because students do tend to go by the books they use. Statement is withdrawn with deep regrets and apologies for causing nasty surprises.Originally Posted by tdol
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Yea, I'm talking about "going" as used in (1e), when it's not expressing movement but intention or futurity.Originally Posted by Casiopea
Agreed, it's not entirely like the modals. Its looks a special case. The modals are not all the same in every way either: MUST has only one form, OUGHT is always followed by TO. Construction-wise (active voice), the modals are: Modal + Infinitive, etc.Originally Posted by Casiopea
If "going" acts as a modal, its constructions are more varied than the true modals: such as, Aux (will) + Be + Going + Infinitive (say, to eat), and so on. The true modals can't be, for example, "Will be can doing".
The modals are very frequently used, to express the very varieties of meaning that they have. In the same way, the use of (going + infinitive) to express intention or futurity is ubiquitous, probably even more frequent than its meaning of actual movement (going somewhere). :wink:Originally Posted by Casiopea
Originally Posted by jwschang
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