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    #1

    Is it grammatical to use "says" in the sentence below? [is said to mark]

    Hello there,

    My question is about using "says" instead of "is said" in the sentence below. I Knew that it would change the meaning of the sentence but an English native speaker told me it is even ungrammatical!

    I want to know why it is ungrammatical?

    Here is the sentence:
    In the late seventeenth century, Dryden's proposed triad of metaphrase, paraphrase and imitation is said to mark the beginning of a more systematic and precise definition of translation.
    P.S. It seems more appropriate for me to use "that" after "is said." I mean like this:"is said that mark."

    In addition, I think the author tries to explain Dryden's proposed triad of ...... instead of explaining other opinions towards it.

    Thank you so much,

  1. MikeNewYork's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: Is it grammatical to use "says" in the sentence below? [is said to mark]

    The original sentence is in passive voice. After the verb "said" a "to infinitive" is grammatical and natural -- "is said to mark". But, "is said that mark" is not grammatical or natural.

  2. teechar's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: Is it grammatical to use "says" in the sentence below? [is said to mark]

    Quote Originally Posted by Lumia625 View Post
    Dryden's ... triad ... [is said to] mark the beginning
    "Says" would not work because "is said to" means "is thought to."
    Your suggested "that" also wouldn't work because the "to" is part of the infinitive structure.

    Edit: Cross-posted with Mike.

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