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    #1

    Why the verb identify has been used as a gerund in the context below?

    Hello there,

    Why the verb "identify" has been used as a gerund in the sentence below? is it because of the apostrophe s?

    Here is the context:
    Tytler's second law, like Dolet's fifth principle, deals with the style of the author and involves the translator's both identifying 'the true character' of this style and having the ability and 'correct taste' to recreate it in the TL.
    Thank you so much,

  1. Raymott's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: Why the verb identify has been used as a gerund in the context below?

    Yes, it involves the translator's identifying the style. The gerund is "identifying" not the verb 'identify'.
    "The translator's identifying of the style" means "the translator's identification of the style."
    More examples:
    "The police were satisfied with her identifying [of] the criminal."
    "I'm not happy with Jane's identifying with the wrong crowd."

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    #3

    Re: Why the verb identify has been used as a gerund in the context below?

    What about the verb "involve?" I have been learnt that gerund can be used after some verbs such as involve.

    I want to know the verb "involve" has caused that author use gerund or it's because of the apostrophe s?

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    #4

    Re: Why the verb identify has been used as a gerund in the context below?

    Quote Originally Posted by Lumia625 View Post
    I want to know the verb "involve" has caused that author use gerund or it's because of the apostrophe s?
    Hello, Lumia.
    Well, it has nothing to do with the apostrophe, and the gerund is required in the sentence you quoted. The verb "involve" is used in this way:
    http://www.oxfordlearnersdictionarie...olve?q=involve

    I hope the link will shed some light on your query.

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    #5

    Re: Why the verb identify has been used as a gerund in the context below?

    Quote Originally Posted by tzfujimino View Post
    Hello, Lumia.
    Well, it has nothing to do with the apostrophe, and the gerund is required in the sentence you quoted. The verb "involve" is used in this way:
    http://www.oxfordlearnersdictionarie...olve?q=involve

    I hope the link will shed some light on your query.
    Yeah, but in that context we have apostrophe s too, even if the verb "involve" had been replaced by another verb the gerund would have been also correct.

    But I want to know the priority cause of using gerund.

    well in your link I saw an example. the original example is
    Parents should involve themselves in their child's education
    Is it correct to change it to "Parents should involve themselves in their child's educating?"

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    #6

    Re: Why the verb identify has been used as a gerund in the context below?

    Have you checked "involve somebody/something doing something" in definition #1?

    In my opinion, it's acceptable to use:

    1. ... involves the translator's identifying 'the true character' of this style ...
    2. ... involves the translator identifying 'the true character' of this style ...

    However, I'm not sure if it's acceptable to use:

    ... involves the translator both identifying 'the true character' of this style and ...

    "translator's" sounds better to me here.



    P.S.
    "Parents should involve themselves in their child's educating" doesn't work for me.

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    #7

    Re: Why the verb identify has been used as a gerund in the context below?

    Quote Originally Posted by Lumia625 View Post
    What about the verb "involve?" I have been learnt that gerund can be used after some verbs such as involve.

    I want to know the verb "involve" has caused that author use gerund or it's because of the apostrophe s?
    I'm not a teacher.

    It is because the verb "involve" collocates with following it "-ing forms" (gerunds).

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    #8

    Re: Why the verb identify has been used as a gerund in the context below?

    Quote Originally Posted by tzfujimino View Post
    Have you checked "involve somebody/something doing something" in definition #1?

    In my opinion, it's acceptable to use:

    1. ... involves the translator's identifying 'the true character' of this style ...
    2. ... involves the translator identifying 'the true character' of this style ...

    However, I'm not sure if it's acceptable to use:

    ... involves the translator both identifying 'the true character' of this style and ...

    "translator's" sounds better to me here.



    P.S.
    "Parents should involve themselves in their child's educating" doesn't work for me.
    I'm not a teacher.

    That's a very interesting point of yours.

    I understand it like that: "the translator's identifying" is in the possessive case where "identifying" is a gerund whereas in "involves the translator both identifying...and..." is in the nominative case where "identifying" is a present participle functioning as an adjectival modifier of "the translator".

    I understand the "translator identifying..." as a non-finite clause in which "the translator" is the subject. That non-finite clause is in the object territory of the whole sentence, i.e. in the predicate.

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    #9

    Re: Why the verb identify has been used as a gerund in the context below?

    Quote Originally Posted by Lumia625 View Post
    I want to know the verb "involve" has caused that author use gerund or it's because of the apostrophe s?
    "Involve" has nothing to do with it.
    Yes, it has to do with the possessive (or the apostrophe s, as you call it). The possessive case is followed by a noun. A gerund is a noun, and an "-ation" word is also a noun. So "John's identifying a criminal" can mean the same as "John's identification of a criminal".

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