They both work. I actually prefer the second.
Interested in Language
Hi to everyone,
I was struggling with this:
"I will do that not to be scared anymore"
"I will do that to be scared no more"
I know that the first sentence sounds better, but is it also possible to use the second one for saying the same thing? Which is the actual difference in using the phrase "is no more"?
Thanks in advance,
Well, I prefer the second too!!