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    #1

    Julian Tuwim grammar

    Hello, I have a question: what is the meaning of the Line that is highlighted?

    Tuwim’s feelings about his Jewishness were ambivalent and assumed a variety of forms. In a 1924 interview, the poet told Nasz Przegląd (no. 6): “I am a Polonized Jew, that is, a Jew-Pole, and I don’t care what people say about it. I was raised in Polish culture; instinctively, guided by a sincere impulse, I would say subconsciously, I have become attached with all my soul to Polishness.” He added that assimilation was the only logical solution to the Jewish question in Poland but the antisemitism poisoning Polish society caused him not to believe in it.


    Does the meaning is that the solution(assimilation) that Julian Tuwim thought to be the only solution for the Jewish question was denied by him because Tuwim believed that the poisoning due to the Anti-Semitism didn't allow to solve the question?

    I have a problem in understanding the sentence, because I think that there is a missing word(between antisemitism and Polish), does it need to be: But the anti-Semitism that was poisoning the Polish society caused him not to believe in it? It looks like there is no any verb.



    Thank you.
    Last edited by captain1; 07-Nov-2015 at 15:17.

  1. Piscean's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: Julian Tuwim grammar

    Quote Originally Posted by captain1 View Post
    I have a problem in understanding the sentence, because I think that there is a missing word(between antisemitism and Polish), does it need to be: But the anti-Semitism that was poisoning the Polish society caused him not to believe in it? It looks like there is no any verb.
    Nothing is missing. The sentence is fine as it is, but you can expand it by adding 'that was' if you wish. Without the addition, 'poisoning' is a participle, a verb-form with some of the characteristics of an adjective.

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    #3

    Re: Julian Tuwim grammar

    1. Do I understand the sentence correctly?(the meaning not the grammar)
    2. So, can I omit the word "was" and than I get the same effect of was+ing? Do they have the same meanings?
    In fact, is this the tense of progressive here?
    Thanks.

  2. bhaisahab's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: Julian Tuwim grammar

    1. He thought that assimilation was the only answer but didn't believe it was possible because of the anti-semitism in Polish society.
    2. No, you can't omit "was" unless you omit "that" as well, as in the original. No, it is not progressive. As Piscean has already told you "poisoning" is the present participle form of the verb.
    "Invading armies have no rights." Noam Chomsky

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    #5

    Re: Julian Tuwim grammar

    Sorry for writing the question again(about what is the "ing" here).
    I had never heard about it before.

    Where can I find an article about this principle?

    Thank you.

  3. bhaisahab's Avatar
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    #6

    Re: Julian Tuwim grammar

    Type present participle into your favourite search engine.
    "Invading armies have no rights." Noam Chomsky

  4. bhaisahab's Avatar
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    #7

    Re: Julian Tuwim grammar

    You could look at this link, too: https://www.usingenglish.com/glossary/participles.html
    "Invading armies have no rights." Noam Chomsky

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    #8

    Re: Julian Tuwim grammar

    I have a question: Why not to use "The Polish society"?

    Look about it :
    Omission of Articles

    Some common types of nouns that don't take an article are:

    • Names of languages and nationalities: Chinese, English, Spanish, Russian (unless you are referring to the population of the nation: "The Spanish are known for their warm hospitality.")



    The Polish society its the same example like here, isn't it?
    Last edited by captain1; 14-Nov-2015 at 14:18.

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    #9

    Re: Julian Tuwim grammar

    • Some common types of nouns that don't take an article are:

      Names of languages and nationalities [omission: when used as nouns that refer to the people as a whole]: Chinese, English, Spanish, Russian (unless you are referring to the population of the nation: "The Spanish are known for their warm hospitality.")
    These aren't right:

    • The Spanish people enjoy music.
    • In the airport queue, [^ the] Spanish were asked to wait.


    b

    PS In fact, 'Spanish' can be a bit tricky, as - unusually* in English - there is a noun meaning 'Spanish person', though it's not widely used now - because, historically, it was an insult (marked with the -ard suffix used in words sucx as b*stard, drunkard, dullard... (though by no means all -ard words are like this: pollard, custard, bollard... etc). So 'The Spanish are friendly' means the same as 'Spaniards are friendly'.

    *And I don't buy 'Brit' as a counter-example. In fact, I think that may have a similar history as a political insult (or, if not insulting, at least depreciative). I first heard it in the mouths of Irish Republicans, speaking in Northern Ireland at the height of The Troubles.
    Last edited by BobK; 14-Nov-2015 at 17:18. Reason: Added PS
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  6. bhaisahab's Avatar
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    #10

    Re: Julian Tuwim grammar

    No, it isn't the same. We say: Polish society: British society; Israeli society etcetera.
    But, we say: The British Society for the Advancement of Human Rights, for example.
    "Invading armies have no rights." Noam Chomsky

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