[Grammar] "not to have been" or "not having been"

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QueenB

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Hello.

There is a sentence transformation that I have a query about. It is as follows:

"She will be upset that she wasn't asked."
Sentence Transformation: "She will be upset not to have been asked." - This is the answer given in the book.
Would this also be a possible answer: "She will be upset not having been asked."

Why "not to have been asked" ? - is it because "she wasn't asked"

Would "not being asked" be a third possible answer? Why and why not?

Thank you kindly,

Q
 

Rover_KE

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Welcome to the forum, QueenB.

Please correct the information in your profile.
 

QueenB

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Welcome to the forum, QueenB.

Please correct the information in your profile.


I don't understand. What do you mean? I logged out . .. and logged back in. What is wrong with my profile?
Thank you
Q
 

emsr2d2

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I don't understand. What do you mean? I logged out . .. and logged back in. What is wrong with my profile?
Thank you
Q

Your member profile says you are in the United Arab Emirates. That does not appear to be the case.
 

QueenB

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Your member profile says you are in the United Arab Emirates. That does not appear to be the case.

Sorry! That must have happened by accident. But I've updated my profile.
 

Tdol

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Would this also be a possible answer: "She will be upset not having been asked."

This doesn't work. It could be better if you added a preposition like at before not having been asked, but I prefer the answer given.
 

QueenB

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This doesn't work. It could be better if you added a preposition like at before not having been asked, but I prefer the answer given.

So correct me if I'm wrong.

You are OK with: She will be upset not to have been asked.

Can you tell me why the answer above is correct then?

Thank you.
Q
 

Tdol

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It means that at some point in the future she will find out that she has not been asked and that will upset her.
 

QueenB

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Thank you very much for your help.

Ok one more question.

"I'm angry at him for not telling me the truth." (I like the sound of this better for some odd reason.)
"I'm angry at him for not having told me the truth."

Do both of these statements mean: I'm angry at him because he didn't tell me the truth."?

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Tarheel

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Yes, but the second one is s bit awkward. They both mean that she is angry with him for lying to her (or for withholding the truth).
 
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Tdol

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"I'm angry at him for not telling me the truth." (I like the sound of this better for some odd reason.)
"I'm angry at him for not having told me the truth."

Do both of these statements mean: I'm angry at him because he didn't tell me the truth."?

They do, and we would tend to use the second when it was important to emphasise that that this was not in the past. The first could be used when the person is lying to you now, though in most cases it wouldn't. I would do the same as you in most contexts, and would only use the second when I had to show that it was in the past.
 
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