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    #1

    ...a parent may be afraid of the child getting hurt.

    -Could you explain to me the grammar point in the sentence below:
    A school may want to take the children camping,but a parent may be afraid of a child getting hurt.
    -After be afraid of we have a noun.
    - Is it right if i rewrite the sentence like this: ... be afraid of a child who get hurt.
    -
    Thanks in advance.

  1. Barb_D's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: ...a parent may be afraid of the child getting hurt.

    No, the fear is of the "getting hurt" part.
    They don't fear the child. (If they did, it would be "a child who gets hurt.")

    This is why gerunds (like "getting hurt") often take the possessive, so you can clearly see that it's acting as a noun.
    I'm afraid of your getting hurt. -- The action of you becoming hurt is what I fear.
    This is not the same as "I'm afraid of you getting hurt." -- I don't fear you. I fear the injury.

    However, the possessive doesn't "sound right" when you say "afraid of a "child's getting hurt" so no one is likely to say or write it that way.

    You must think of "a child getting hurt" as the noun phrase here.
    I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.

  2. Tarheel's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: ...a parent may be afraid of the child getting hurt.

    A parent might be afraid that their child might get hurt.

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