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    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • Armenian
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      • Iran
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    #1

    only seen...

    1) I have only seen young men drive that make of car.
    2) I have seen only young men drive that make of car.

    Is there a difference in the meanings of these sentences?

    I think '2' means: The only people I have seen drive that make of car were young man.

    '1' technically means: I have only seen young men drive that make of car, but I have not heard them drive it, or ....

    But that would be a very strange meaning!

    I think in practice '1' is used instead of '2', and '2' sounds strange!!

    Gratefully,
    Navi.

  1. emsr2d2's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: only seen...

    There was a very similar thread recently about the potential ambiguity of the placement of the word "only". Technically, you're right that #1 could be seen to have the meaning you describe but the simple fact is that it's the construction used most often (in BrE) to mean the same as #2.
    Remember - if you don't use correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing, anything you write will be incorrect.

    • Member Info
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    #3

    Re: only seen...

    #2 may be correct, but it sounds odd to me.

  2. Roman55's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: only seen...

    It doesn't sound odd to me at all, or at least it wouldn't if it were spoken with the right intonation on 'only'.

    It does have the advantage of not being ambiguous.
    I am not a teacher

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