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    #1

    due (to?)

    Hello teachers,

    Need your help!

    Here are three sentences:


    1. Their patrons are mesmerized and seduced, in no small part due the backdrop of incense cedars and granite outcroppings.
    2. I will just say for now that no one, except the most assiduous of Marxists (Eagleton, 1990), dismisses either cultural distinctions due political boundaries or a persistent human interest in beauty.
    3. The Beast in this scenario, who due his modesty is quite successful in the survival domain, is mortally fearful of Psyche’s distracting beauty, so he domesticates it by planting it safely in his garden.


    The book is well written, but there are several instances where the author uses the word due without to following it, which to me seems odd, as I have not come across such usage so far.

    Here is my question: Are these sentences correct as they are? Shouldn't the word due be followed by to in all the above instances?

    As always, thank you very much for your time.

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    #2

    Re: due (to?)

    The phrase should be due to in all three cases.
    I am not a teacher.

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    #3

    Re: due (to?)

    Please cite the title and author of the book.
    “Every miserable fool who has nothing at all of which he can be proud, adopts as a last resource pride in the nation to which he belongs; he is ready and happy to defend all its faults and follies tooth and nail, thus reimbursing himself for his own inferiority.”

    — Arthur Schopenhauer

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    #4

    Re: due (to?)

    Thank you so much.

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    #5

    Re: due (to?)

    Mr. bhaisahab,

    I would love to but can't because the book is at the manuscript stage, not yet published.
    I hope you understand. Thank you.

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    #6

    Re: due (to?)

    Is the author a native English speaker?
    “Every miserable fool who has nothing at all of which he can be proud, adopts as a last resource pride in the nation to which he belongs; he is ready and happy to defend all its faults and follies tooth and nail, thus reimbursing himself for his own inferiority.”

    — Arthur Schopenhauer

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    #7

    Re: due (to?)

    Yes, and I think particularly an American one.

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    #8

    Re: due (to?)

    Quote Originally Posted by LaMelange




    1. "Their patrons are mesmerized due to the backdrop of incense cedar."
    NOT A TEACHER


    Hello, LaMelange:

    I just thought that you might be interested in knowing that a few teachers still prefer "because of" in your kind of sentence.

    Q: Why were they mesmerized?
    A: Because of the backdrop of incense cedars. ("because of" is a preposition)


    Those "few" teachers point out that "due" is an adjective. They might recommend a sentence something like this:

    "The mesmerization of patrons is due to the backdrop of incense cedars."


    Q: What is the mesmerization of patrons due to?
    A: the backdrop of incense cedars.

    American ESL teachers in 2016 now seem to accept either "due to" or "because of" in a sentence such as yours.

    My answering your post was due to my wish to inform you of this information.
    I answered your post due to/ because of my wish to inform you of this information.

    I agree that the second sentence does sound more natural.

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    #9

    Re: due (to?)

    Thank you, Parser, for sharing this information with me.

    Yes, I am aware of this due to/because of distinction. Quite a few style manuals talk about this.

    But as you say a "few" teachers still prefer to use this distinction, nowadays, some are of the opinion that it is not a value addition!

    Either way, the meaning is conveyed! Maybe that is all that matters.

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    #10

    Re: due (to?)

    "Due to" is perfectly fine. Anyone who suggests otherwise is ignoring widespread common usage.
    I am not a teacher.

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