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    #1

    after he had received/after having received

    I have used different verb (forms?) in the two sentences below.
    - Do they differ in meaning?
    - Is (A) a better sentence construction than (B)?


    (A) On 2 June 2015, Ted went to meet “Thomas” at his flat, after he had received an invitation from him.

    (B) On 2 June 2015, Ted went to meet “Thomas” at his flat, after having received an invitation from him

    Thank you!


  1. bhaisahab's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: after he had received/after having received

    They are both OK. There is no difference in meaning.
    “Every miserable fool who has nothing at all of which he can be proud, adopts as a last resource pride in the nation to which he belongs; he is ready and happy to defend all its faults and follies tooth and nail, thus reimbursing himself for his own inferiority.”

    — Arthur Schopenhauer

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    #3

    Re: after he had received/after having received

    'Had received' is past perfect tense. What tense is 'having received'? I'm wondering if 'having' is a gerund.

    Thank you!

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