[Grammar] Is having-gerund or verb

[jigneshbharati]

I read the following sentence in the Times of India:"For him, acting is just a job and success to him is having a good night's sleep after a long day." What part of speech 'having' belongs to in the sentence and please help me to understand the subtle differences of the grammar. Can 'is having ' be replaced with ' to have' and would that change the meaning of the sentence?

 

[emsr2d2]

I read the following sentence in the Times of India: (space required here) "For him, acting is just a job and success to him is having a good night's sleep after a long day." What part of speech does 'having' [strike]belongs[/strike] belong to in the sentence? [strike]and[/strike] Please help me to understand the subtle differences of the grammar. Can 'is having' be replaced with 'to have' and would that change the meaning of the sentence?

See my changes above. Note that I enlarged the font in post #1. Remember that small fonts make posts difficult to read, both for those using smartphones and for older people whose eyesight might not be as good as it used to be!

 

[Matthew Wai]

Can 'is having ' be replaced with ' to have'?

I think it can be replaced with 'is to have'.

 

[Tdol]

It can.