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    #1

    He implied someone for something he did.

    He implicated someone for something he did.

    Here the second 'he' can both mean the first 'He' as well as second 'he'. How do I disambiguate this?
    Last edited by MeyaN; 22-Sep-2016 at 17:48.

  1. teechar's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: He implied someone for something he did.

    Quote Originally Posted by MeyaN View Post
    implied
    Do you perhaps mean "implicated" instead?

    Quote Originally Posted by MeyaN View Post
    Here the second 'he' can both mean the first 'He' as well as second 'he'. How do I disambiguate this?
    Context is king! It disambiguates the chaff from the wheat.

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    #3

    Re: He implied someone for something he did.

    Quote Originally Posted by MeyaN View Post
    He implied someone for something he did.

    Here the second 'he' can both mean the first 'He' as well as second 'he'. How do I disambiguate this?
    teechar already caught "implied"...

    For reasons of common usage, and for the logic of the sentence, I read this as "he" being unambiguously the same person. If I wanted the second "he" to refer to "someone", I'd replace "he" with "they".

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    #4

    Re: He implied someone for something he did.

    Yeah, it was implicated. Sorry.

    'If I wanted the second "he" to refer to "someone", I'd replace "he" with "they".'
    Can we do it so, ChinaDan? Because singular 'someone' would be replaced by collective pronoun 'they'. Please explain.

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    #5

    Re: He implied someone for something he did.

    It's acceptable to use 'they' these days as an alternative to 's/he' or 'he/she'.

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    #6

    Re: He implied someone for something he did.

    Quote Originally Posted by MeyaN View Post
    'If I wanted the second "he" to refer to "someone", I'd replace "he" with "they".'
    Can we do it so, ChinaDan? Because singular 'someone' would be replaced by collective pronoun 'they'. Please explain.
    Piscean got that; Post #5. In this age of hyper political correctness, it has become acceptable to use "they" instead of a singular gender-specific pronoun.

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    #7

    Re: He implied someone for something he did.

    Quote Originally Posted by ChinaDan View Post
    In this age of hyper political correctness,
    I don't feel that avoiding gender-specific nouns, almost always masculine, is being 'hyper politically correct', especially as the use of singular 'they' has a long and distinguished history, Pedantic grammarians, relying on logic rather than actual usage, frowned on this for a couple of centuries, but they never managed to kill it for many native speakers.

    For some of us educated formally over half a century ago, the acceptance of singular 'they' in more formal English may seem a little strange, but many native speakers have always used it.

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    #8

    Re: He implied someone for something he did.

    "He implicated someone else for something they did." Is this sounding natural? Is it obvious from the sentence that 'they' is referring to 'someone'?

    Just to make myself 100% clear.

    Thank you.

    PS: I hope it's okay to use 'myself' instead of 'me' above for I was trying to make myself clear by your reply.

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    #9

    Re: He implied someone for something he did.

    I find this use of 'implicate' unnatural however you word it, If you implicate somebody in an action, you say that they were involved it it. You are not necessarily shifting all the blame on to them, which is what I suspect you may be trying to suggest.

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    #10

    Re: He implied someone for something he did.

    Quote Originally Posted by MeyaN View Post
    ?

    Just to make myself 100% clear.

    Thank you.

    PS: I hope it's okay to use 'myself' instead of 'me' above for I was trying to make myself clear by your reply.
    Yes, that's perfect.
    I am not a teacher.

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