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  1. Newbie
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    #1

    "...neither party cannot..." & "....neither one cannot..."

    Hi,

    1. "Having entered into an illegal contract, neither party cannot invoke the same as against each other either to enforce their illegal agreement....."

    2. "As human beings we know about one thing that neither party cannot deny.It is your conscience."

    3. "Their battle ended to a stalemate as neither one cannot destroy the other."

    4. "Neither one cannot exist without the other."

    Is the use of "cannot" grammatically correct in the above sentences?
    English is my second language and hence, I would be grateful if some experts in the language could be kind enough to explain to me why the authors of the sentences use "cannot" instead of "can" after "neither"?

    Thanks

    BC Choo
    Last edited by emsr2d2; 17-Oct-2016 at 10:36. Reason: Removed formatting to make post readable (font size and colour)

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    #2

    Re: "...neither party cannot..." & "....neither one cannot..."

    Welcome to the forum, bcchoo.

    What is the source of your quoted sentences? Where did you find them?

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    #3

    Re: "...neither party cannot..." & "....neither one cannot..."

    Each example should use can.
    I am not a teacher.

  2. Newbie
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    #4

    Re: "...neither party cannot..." & "....neither one cannot..."

    Hi,

    Thank you very much for the responses.

    I actually picked up the sentences randomly from google search on the words "neither party cannot" or "neither one cannot" that I conducted after reading the opted quoted paragraph as follows from the judgement of Lord Atkinson in the case of New Zealand Shipping Co Ltd v Société des Ateliers et Chantiers de France [1919] AC 1:

    "It is undoubtedly competent for the two parties to a contract to stipulate by a clause in it that the contract shall be void upon the happening of an event over which neither of the parties shall have any control, cannot bring about, prevent or retard. For instance, they may stipulate that if rain should fall on the thirtieth day after the date of the contract, the contract should be void."

    I am sure the judge could not be wrong in using "cannot" after "neither".

    I sincerely hope the experts in this forum would be kind enough to tell me if such usage is acceptable.

    Warm regards,
    BC

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    #5

    Re: "...neither party cannot..." & "....neither one cannot..."

    Quote Originally Posted by bcchoo View Post
    I am sure the judge could not be wrong in using "cannot" after "neither".
    It's a very poorly-worded statement. The judge was wrong. These things happen.
    I am not a teacher.

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    #6

    Re: "...neither party cannot..." & "....neither one cannot..."

    I don't think the judge's decision was poorly worded. It states clearly and exactly the situations for which is it competent for two parties to a contract to stipulate when a contract can be considered void.
    Last edited by Rover_KE; 19-Oct-2016 at 19:06.

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