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  1. Newbie
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    #1

    I am wondering why the dictionary writer wrote to be.

    It:

    used with the verb to be” for emphasizing that you are referring to a particular person, thing, time, or place

    1.It’s your brother I want to speak to.
    2.It was a year ago today that I started working here.

    from:http://www.macmillandictionary.com/d.../american/it_2
    -----------------------------------------------

    My question: I think it is more accurate to write be” rather than to be”.


    (I know that this is a weird question to ask. but I am curious about it)
    Last edited by GoldfishLord; 15-Nov-2016 at 12:00.

  2. emsr2d2's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: I am wondering why the dictionary writer wrote to be.

    Some dictionaries (and some of us) still use the full infinitive when referring to the infinitive. The dictionary has chosen to call the infinitive form of the verb "to be". Some people will use the bare infinitive, in which case it would have said "used with the verb 'be' for emphasising ...".
    Remember - if you don't use correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing, anything you write will be incorrect.

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    #3

    Re: I am wondering why the dictionary writer wrote to be.

    Thank you very much and please give me more detailed examples

  4. emsr2d2's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: I am wondering why the dictionary writer wrote to be.

    I'm not sure how it can be any more detailed. You will notice for yourself, both on this forum, on grammar sites, in textbooks and in dictionaries, that some use "to" with the infinitive and some don't.
    Remember - if you don't use correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing, anything you write will be incorrect.

  5. Newbie
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    #5

    Re: I am wondering why the dictionary writer wrote to be.

    So, does the verb "to be" have the same meaning as the verb "be"?
    Last edited by GoldfishLord; 15-Nov-2016 at 14:02.

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    #6

    Re: I am wondering why the dictionary writer wrote to be.

    It does in this context.

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    #7

    Re: I am wondering why the dictionary writer wrote to be.

    Quote Originally Posted by GoldfishLord View Post
    So, does the verb "to be" have the same meaning as the verb "be"?
    Those are two names for the same verb.
    I am not a teacher.

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