Results 1 to 5 of 5

    • Join Date: Jul 2006
    • Posts: 2
    #1

    Question Has/Have dillema

    I have a intriguing doubt about the following sentences...

    1. Ram and Shyam's friends have/has gone for a party.
    2. Ram's friends and Shyam have/has gone for a party.

  1. DavyBCN's Avatar
    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • English
      • Home Country:
      • Wales
      • Current Location:
      • Rwanda

    • Join Date: Jul 2006
    • Posts: 346
    #2

    Re: Has/Have dillema

    Quote Originally Posted by jainbikash
    I have a intriguing doubt about the following sentences...
    1. Ram and Shyam's friends have/has gone for a party.
    2. Ram's friends and Shyam have/has gone for a party.
    Both sentences involve more than one person (they) - so have is the only choice for both. Also, gone "for" a party is not very common in British English, but it may be used in other Ebnglish speaking countries. Gone to a party or gone to have a party would be better depending on the context.

  2. sheena55ro
    Guest
    #3

    Re: Has/Have dillema

    Quote Originally Posted by jainbikash
    I have a intriguing doubt about the following sentences...
    1. Ram and Shyam's friends have/has gone for a party.
    2. Ram's friends and Shyam have/has gone for a party.
    1.Ram and Shyam`s friends have gone to a party[ plural subject; to go to]

    2. Ram`s friends and Shyam have gone to a party [ plural subject]

    but..
    1. Neither Ram , nor Shyam`s friends have gone to a party [ the closest subject to "nor" is in the plural :friends]

    2. Neither Ram`s friends nor Shyam has gone to the party.[ the closest subject to "nor" is in the singular :Shyam ]

    All the best,

  3. DavyBCN's Avatar
    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • English
      • Home Country:
      • Wales
      • Current Location:
      • Rwanda

    • Join Date: Jul 2006
    • Posts: 346
    #4

    Re: Has/Have dillema

    Quote Originally Posted by sheena55ro
    1.Ram and Shyam`s friends have gone to a party[ plural subject; to go to]
    2. Ram`s friends and Shyam have gone to a party [ plural subject]
    but..
    1. Neither Ram , nor Shyam`s friends have gone to a party [ the closest subject to "nor" is in the plural :friends]
    2. Neither Ram`s friends nor Shyam has gone to the party.[ the closest subject to "nor" is in the singular :Shyam ]
    All the best,
    Um - as a native British English speaker the use of has instead of have in the last example you give, Sheena, really does not seem to be correct. The rule you quote appears logical in some ways, but is not one I know or have ever heard in practice. Whether grammatically correct or incorrect the practice is that "Ram's friends nor Shyam" are still "they" and people use have.

    This is a fascinating point - and quite prepared to be proved wrong!

    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • English
      • Home Country:
      • England
      • Current Location:
      • England

    • Join Date: Feb 2005
    • Posts: 2,585
    #5

    Re: Has/Have dillema

    2. Neither Ram`s friends nor Shyam has gone to the party.

    Yes; I think I would say "have" too.

    All the best,

    MrP

Similar Threads

  1. Has/have
    By kahhong in forum Ask a Teacher
    Replies: 3
    Last Post: 30-May-2006, 02:47
  2. None of my friend/friends has/have
    By basharath2 in forum Ask a Teacher
    Replies: 1
    Last Post: 19-May-2006, 10:10
  3. got and has/have
    By kahhong in forum Ask a Teacher
    Replies: 5
    Last Post: 05-Mar-2006, 08:54
  4. PERFECT TENSES. When to use Has/Have, DO/DID
    By PebblePoet in forum Ask a Teacher
    Replies: 3
    Last Post: 12-May-2005, 13:26
  5. has/have
    By bread in forum Ask a Teacher
    Replies: 3
    Last Post: 19-Apr-2004, 14:36

Bookmarks

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •