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  1. Senior Member
    Student or Learner
    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • Persian
      • Home Country:
      • Iran
      • Current Location:
      • Iran

    • Join Date: Jan 2013
    • Posts: 583
    #1

    I would have been able to buy competitors for nothing

    I know that it might be getting annoying, but I have no one to ask my questions. So I like to thank all of you who patiently answer me.


    The sentence below is the one I couldn't understand its meaning, I mean the underlined part. Does it mean that I would have won over my competitors without so much struggling?

    I would have been able to buy competitors for nothing, take market share that I used to have to fight for, and buy real estate for pennies.

    Thanks
    Last edited by Sepmre; 02-May-2017 at 19:28.

  2. VIP Member
    Interested in Language
    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • American English
      • Home Country:
      • United States
      • Current Location:
      • United States

    • Join Date: Dec 2015
    • Posts: 12,358
    #2

    Re: I would have been able to buy competitors for nothing

    The author means it figuratively. Read "for nothing" as "for a trivial amount of money".
    I am not a teacher.

  3. VIP Member
    Interested in Language
    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • American English
      • Home Country:
      • United States
      • Current Location:
      • United States

    • Join Date: Dec 2015
    • Posts: 12,358
    #3

    Re: I would have been able to buy competitors for nothing

    I don't see any sign the author meant "destroyed".
    I am not a teacher.

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