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  1. Key Member
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    #1

    Are both sentences grammatical?

    Are both sentences correct and have they the same meaning?

    Are both sentences correct and do they have the same meaning?

    Are the above sentences grammatical?

    Thanks.

  2. Senior Member
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    #2

    Re: Are both sentences grammatical?

    Quote Originally Posted by Tan Elaine View Post
    Are both sentences correct and have they the same meaning?

    Are both sentences correct and do they have the same meaning?

    Thanks.
    See above.

  3. VIP Member
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    #3

    Re: Are both sentences grammatical?

    They are both grammatically correct, mean the same thing, and will be understood. Only the second one is natural.

    We usually use inversion with to have only when it's an auxiliary verb.
    I am not a teacher.

  4. Piscean's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: Are both sentences grammatical?

    Some of us older speakers of BrE use inversion with the full verb. Have you any other questions about this?

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    #5

    Re: Are both sentences grammatical?

    I believe some Americans use it sometimes, too - perhaps in New England, though I can't recall having heard it there.
    I am not a teacher.

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