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  1. Senior Member
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    #1

    has developed or had developed

    I think the answer is 'had developed', but I'm unsure.

    1) Amy had developed a fear of heights since she nearly fell off a ladder three years ago.

    2) For the same sentence, what condition(s) would need to be present in order that the answer be 'has developed'?Thank you.

  2. bhaisahab's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: has developed or had developed

    I would write 'has had a fear of heights'.
    “Every miserable fool who has nothing at all of which he can be proud, adopts as a last resource pride in the nation to which he belongs; he is ready and happy to defend all its faults and follies tooth and nail, thus reimbursing himself for his own inferiority.”

    — Arthur Schopenhauer

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    #3

    Re: has developed or had developed

    No, use "developed". In that sentence, "since" is not temporal.
    [cross-posted]

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    #4

    Re: has developed or had developed

    Quote Originally Posted by Oceanlike View Post
    For the same sentence, what condition(s) would need to be present in order that the answer be 'has developed'?
    Can you try first?
    Also, please use the default font in your future posts, and go easy on the colours/boldface.

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    #5

    Re: has developed or had developed

    Quote Originally Posted by teechar View Post
    No, use "developed". In that sentence, "since" is not temporal.
    [cross-posted]
    Sorry, I understand your explanation. You meant I should simply use the simple past tense because 'since' is not temporal. I don't understand the underlined part. Kindly help me understand.

    Thank you.

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    #6

    Re: has developed or had developed

    Quote Originally Posted by teechar View Post
    Can you try first?
    I really have no clue at all how to do it.
    Last edited by emsr2d2; 18-May-2017 at 14:09. Reason: Fixed quote box

  7. teechar's Avatar
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    #7

    Re: has developed or had developed

    Quote Originally Posted by Oceanlike View Post
    Sorry, I understand your explanation. You meant I should simply use the simple past tense because 'since' is not temporal. I don't understand the underlined part. Kindly help me to understand it.

    Thank you.
    The word "since" can have a temporal meaning (between a point in the past and now), and a non-temporal meaning (because/as a result of). The past perfect is incorrect, because "developed" happened after (not before) "fell." The past simple makes sense because those two past actions likely took place close to each other.

    The version suggested by bhaisahab is also possible and quite natural. In that, "since" is temporal, covering the past three years.

    ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    Yes, it's possible to use the present perfect in that sentence, but that would imply a very late reaction to the incident. It would mean that she nearly fell off the ladder three years ago, but only developed the fear recently.

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    #8

    Re: has developed or had developed

    It would be more natural (and less confusing) without "since".

    Amy developed a fear of heights after falling off a ladder three years ago.
    Amy has a fear of heights, having fallen off a ladder three years ago.
    Remember - if you don't use correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing, anything you write will be incorrect.

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    #9

    Re: has developed or had developed

    In the present perfect, it doesn't work with develop. And I think it works better with ever since, which makes it obviously temporal.

    Amy has had a fear of heights ever since she almost fell from a ladder three years ago.

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