nigele2
Member
- Joined
- May 3, 2017
- Member Type
- English Teacher
- Native Language
- British English
- Home Country
- Spain
- Current Location
- Spain
Hi
A bit specific but hoping someone can shed some light on this.
I'm developing some lesson plans for Spanish students (L1 : Castilian Spanish) learning English. From my investigations I see the use of 'to have' as an auxiliary verb is very similar to the use of 'haber' as an auxiliary verb in Spanish, within the context of compound verbs.
I would appreciate any views on whether I can base lessons on this assumption or if there are differences to be taken into account.
My students are established intermediate level.
Sadly my Spanish was learnt informally over many years so I cannot relate to my own experience in terms of grammar rules. :-(
Gracias
A bit specific but hoping someone can shed some light on this.
I'm developing some lesson plans for Spanish students (L1 : Castilian Spanish) learning English. From my investigations I see the use of 'to have' as an auxiliary verb is very similar to the use of 'haber' as an auxiliary verb in Spanish, within the context of compound verbs.
I would appreciate any views on whether I can base lessons on this assumption or if there are differences to be taken into account.
My students are established intermediate level.
Sadly my Spanish was learnt informally over many years so I cannot relate to my own experience in terms of grammar rules. :-(
Gracias