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  1. #1
    lagoo is offline Member
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    The man has married before.

    Hi,
    Supposing a man married a woman 10 years ago, and then they divorced.
    When I say the man experienced the marriage but now he is single, could I use the following two expressions?
    (1) The man has married before.
    (2) The man has been married before.
    What’s the difference or any connotations for each sentence?

  2. #2
    Rover_KE is offline Moderator
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    Re: The man has married before.

    (1) is unlikely. Use 'was'.

    (2) is fine.

  3. #3
    lagoo is offline Member
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    Re: The man has married before.

    Is "marry" a special word when used as a past participle after has/have? Because if I change "married" with others words, it always make sense. For example, the man has seen the movie before.

  4. #4
    Tdol is offline Editor, UsingEnglish.com
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    Re: The man has married before.

    1) is not wrong, but it sounds a bit dated to me. We would use other ways of saying it.

  5. #5
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    teechar is offline Moderator
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    Re: The man has married before.

    Quote Originally Posted by lagoo View Post
    the man experienced the marriage
    If you're referring to marriage in general (not a specific marriage), omit "the".

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