They worked for Jane Austen. They don't work for me.

English Teacher
I was wondering if my fellow native speakers find it acceptable for the past perfect to be used with used to:
(1a) I used to smoke.
(1b) ? In 1995, I had not used to smoke. (versus: In 1995, I did not use(d) to smoke. / In 1995, it was not the case that I used to smoke.)
(2a) He said, "I used to smoke."
(2b) ? He said that he had used to smoke. (versus without "backshift": He said that he used to smoke.)
The (b) sentences do not sit well with me, but I can't quite say I find them ungrammatical. What do you think?
Thank you.
They worked for Jane Austen. They don't work for me.
I am not a teacher.
What about this? Does this work for my fellow natives? It seems to sit much better with me, but I have mixed feelings.
(3) He may/might have used to smoke. [to be interpreted as meaning: "It is possible that he used to smoke."]
It's a different use of the perfect. It might be called the "modal perfect," as opposed to the present or the past perfect.
I realize this changes the topic slightly, but it is still close enough, I feel, for there to be no need for a separate thread.
Last edited by Phaedrus; 24-Aug-2019 at 03:54. Reason: typo