"Whom" as indirect object?

[Luckysquirty]

Whom did we give the order to?

Could "whom" be the indirect object of the verb "did give"?

[Yankee]

Yes, but you would most often hear/use "who".

[Luckysquirty]

Yes, but you would most often hear/use "who".

We did give the order to "who."

Incorrect, I believe.

[Piscean]

Whom did we give the order to?

Could "whom" be the indirect object of the verb "did give"?

No. It is the object of the preposition 'to'.

We gave John (indirect object) the order.
We gave the order to John (prepositional object).

[jutfrank]

I think it is, yes.

Note that the verb is give, not did give.

[Piscean]

Gave.

Who gave the order to ...

[PaulMatthews]

Whom did we give the order to?

Could "whom" be the indirect object of the verb "did give"?

No, "whom" is complement of the preposition "to". Just because it questions the identity of the recipient doesn't mean it's an indirect object.

[Yankee]

We did give the order to "who."

Incorrect, I believe.

Didn't say it was correct. Just referring to popular usage.

[Luckysquirty]

Didn't say it was correct. Just referring to popular usage.

Dumbing of America. I hear newscasters using incorrect English. And Lord knows how many hours they spent studying.