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  1. #1
    Rachel Adams is offline Key Member
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    "Have" without "do"

    Hello.

    When using "have" with "breakfast", "bath", "a great time", etc it isn't wrong not to use "do", is it?
    For example, "She has breakfast at 8." "She hasn't breakfast at 8." "Has she breakfast at 8?"

  2. #2
    Yankee is offline Senior Member
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    Re: "Have" without "do"

    You need a form of "do" with the negative and question, e.g. "doesn't have" and "does she have".

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    GoesStation is offline Moderator
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    Re: "Have" without "do"

    Quote Originally Posted by Rachel Adams View Post
    "She has breakfast at 8."
    "She hasn't breakfast at 8."
    "Has she breakfast at 8?"
    The last one is grammatical but rarely used by anyone under seventy years of age.
    I am not a teacher.

  4. #4
    Rachel Adams is offline Key Member
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    Re: "Have" without "do"

    Quote Originally Posted by GoesStation View Post
    The last one is grammatical but rarely used by anyone under seventy years of age.
    Is it an exeption? Saying "She hasn't a job" or "Has she a job?" Isn't wrong but using "have" in my original sentences is either wrong or unnatural. Is it because the meaning of "have" in "Has she a job?" "She hasn't a job" is different?

  5. #5
    emsr2d2's Avatar
    emsr2d2 is offline Moderator
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    Re: "Have" without "do"

    We use "do" only to emphasise something in declarative sentences. Otherwise, we tend not to (unless "do" is the main verb, of course).

    She has a job.
    Does she have a job?
    Has she a job? Grammatical but so old-fashioned, it would sound very odd to all native speakers.
    She doesn't have a job.
    Doesn't she have a job?
    Has she no job? Grammatical but, again, old-fashioned.

    In your original examples, another old-fashioned usage would be "Does she breakfast at eight?" Here, "breakfast" is used as a verb. We rarely do that nowadays.
    Remember - if you don't use correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing, anything you write will be incorrect.

  6. #6
    Rachel Adams is offline Key Member
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    Re: "Have" without "do"

    Quote Originally Posted by emsr2d2 View Post
    We use "do" only to emphasise something in declarative sentences. Otherwise, we tend not to (unless "do" is the main verb, of course).

    She has a job.
    Does she have a job?
    Has she a job? Grammatical but so old-fashioned, it would sound very odd to all native speakers.
    She doesn't have a job.
    Doesn't she have a job?
    Has she no job? Grammatical but, again, old-fashioned.

    In your original examples, another old-fashioned usage would be "Does she breakfast at eight?" Here, "breakfast" is used as a verb. We rarely do that nowadays.
    So all sentences with "have" without "do" show old-fashioned use. My original sentences don't sound natural because of that and it doesn't matter if "has" means to "own" something or eat something as in "to have breakfast"?

  7. #7
    Rachel Adams is offline Key Member
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    Re: "Have" without "do"

    Quote Originally Posted by Piscean View Post
    Yes.

    When HAVE means, in the broadest possible sense, possess, some of us older Brits do not use auxiliary DO. With HAVE in its other meanings, we always use auxiliary DO.
    Other meanings as in "have a bath", "have fun", "have a shower" "have dinner" , "have a meal". Right? These should have "do".

  8. #8
    PaulMatthews is offline Member
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    Re: "Have" without "do"

    Quote Originally Posted by Rachel Adams View Post
    Is it an exeption? Saying "She hasn't a job" or "Has she a job?" Isn't wrong but using "have" in my original sentences is either wrong or unnatural. Is it because the meaning of "have" in "Has she a job?" "She hasn't a job" is different?

    You need to distinguish dynamic "have" and static "have". Dynamic "have" is a lexical verb for all speakers, but static have (which expresses such meanings as possession or obligation) is for some speakers an auxiliary verb, especially in the present tense.

    This means that for negatives, we have either "don’t have" or "haven’t", and analogously with inversion. Consider these examples:

    He doesn’t have enough money. [lexical "have"]
    He hasn’t enough money. [auxiliary "have"]

    Does he have enough money? [lexical "have"]
    Has he enough money? [auxiliary "have"]

    As you can see, lexical "have" requires do-support, whereas auxiliary "have" doesn't.

  9. #9
    Rachel Adams is offline Key Member
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    Re: "Have" without "do"

    Quote Originally Posted by PaulMatthews View Post
    You need to distinguish dynamic "have" and static "have". Dynamic "have" is a lexical verb for all speakers, but static have (which expresses such meanings as possession or obligation) is for some speakers an auxiliary verb, especially in the present tense.

    This means that for negatives, we have either "donít have" or "havenít", and analogously with inversion. Consider these examples:

    He doesnít have enough money. [lexical "have"]
    He hasnít enough money. [auxiliary "have"]

    Does he have enough money? [lexical "have"]
    Has he enough money? [auxiliary "have"]

    As you can see, lexical "have" requires do-support, whereas auxiliary "have" doesn't.
    But the meaning of your sentences is the same. They all mean to possess something. In my original sentences "have" is not a lexical verb but is it not an auxiliary either with "have a shower/bath/breakfast etc.

  10. #10
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    Re: "Have" without "do"

    I take a shower or bath.

    Bob: Have you had breakfast?
    Rob: Yes, I ate at eight.

    Not a professional teacher

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