View Poll Results: Which form of the verb ''to be" do we have to use?

Voters
5. This poll is closed
  • are

    1 20.00%
  • is

    4 80.00%
  • other opinions

    0 0%
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  1. Mad-ox's Avatar
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    #1

    none of the pipes are/is damaged

    hi,


    are or is?

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    #2

    Red face Re: none of the pipes are/is damaged

    Hi Dear,

    I would pick " is ".

    ju

  2. MikeNewYork's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: none of the pipes are/is damaged

    Quote Originally Posted by Mad-ox View Post
    hi,


    are or is?
    Technically, "none" is intended to be singular, and you will never be wrong if you choose the singular verb (except with the construction "almost none").
    That said, many people will use a plural verb when the object of the preposition that follows "none" is plural.

    Personally, I would use the singular.

  3. curmudgeon's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: none of the pipes are/is damaged

    Does 'none' mean not one or not any, or both? If it means not one is it singular and if it means not any is it plural?

    So: None of us knows what the future holds. (Not one)
    None of us know what the future holds. (Not any)

  4. MikeNewYork's Avatar
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    #5

    Re: none of the pipes are/is damaged

    Quote Originally Posted by curmudgeon View Post
    Does 'none' mean not one or not any, or both? If it means not one is it singular and if it means not any is it plural?

    So: None of us knows what the future holds. (Not one)
    None of us know what the future holds. (Not any)
    I would say not one and not any are both singular.

  5. curmudgeon's Avatar
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    #6

    Re: none of the pipes are/is damaged


  6. MikeNewYork's Avatar
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    #7

    Re: none of the pipes are/is damaged

    Quote Originally Posted by curmudgeon View Post
    There are many opinions on this. She has one.

  7. curmudgeon's Avatar
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    #8

    Re: none of the pipes are/is damaged

    Quote Originally Posted by MikeNewYork View Post
    There are many opinions on this. She has one.
    Well thats solved that then


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    #9

    Re: none of the pipes are/is damaged

    The suggestion that there is some kind of authority that describes 'none' "technically" as singular has no merit. It comes from prescriptive grammar and it is simply another of the errant 'rules'.

    This is another example of prescriptive grammar just stating such and such is so and using illegitimate 'proof' to back it up.

    +++++++++++++

    The Grammar Book - An ESL/EFL Teacher's Course

    Many traditional grammars state that when used as a subject, none is always singular regardless of what folllows in a prepositional phrase. The argument for this rule has been that none means not one. However, usage surveys give us a different picture of what native speakers are doing and thinking when they use none.

    ... when none refers to a plural noun - human and nonhuman - usage seems to be more or less equally divided between the singular and plural inflection.

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    #10

    Re: none of the pipes are/is damaged

    One of the textbooks I currently teach states that though none should be followed by a verb in the singular form, many native speakers used the plural form. So I tell this to students and they´re more than happy to know that whatever form they put will be correct!

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