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  1. #1

    help me...

    He has read a book for three days.+ He will be reading the book until tomorrow morning.

    1) He will have been reading a book for four days tomorrow morning.

    2) He will have read a book for four days tomorrow morning.

    Are both sentences correct and same meaning?

    Are there any answers?

  2. curmudgeon's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: help me...

    Quote Originally Posted by lsujang View Post
    He has read a book for three days.+ He will be reading the book until tomorrow morning.

    1) He will have been reading a book for four days tomorrow morning.

    By tomorrow morning, he will have been reading the book for four days.

    2) He will have read the book for four days by tomorrow morning.

    Are both sentences correct and same meaning?

    Are there any answers?
    .

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