Student or Learner
Could anyone tell me the technical reason why we can't use "died" in passive voice? If "he has died" is correct gramatically then why can't we use "he has been died".
Active voice: The VJ killed the song.
Passive voice: The song was killed (by the VJ).
Active voice: The VJ died.
Passive voice: was died (by the VJ).
Now, the problem with our example sentence below is the word died. It's the right meaning in the sense, no longer living, but it's the wrong grammatical form.
Ex: The man has been died.
Ex: The man has been dead.
Died is a verb and, in English, there can be only one main verb, or rather one tense-carrying verb per simple sentence. The main verb is has. It carries the tense and it takes the past participle been as its object, and that word, in turn, takes dead, and adjective.
In short, BE + dead (adjective), not BE + died (verb).
All the best.
Second, the verb to die is not transitive, so it won't work in passive voice.
Third, been of has been takes an adjective, not a verb. That's why has been died is ungrammatical and has been dead is grammatical.
All the best.
Thanks for excellent explanation. It's clear now that the verbs that don't take objective are intransitive verb and we can't make passive of intransitive verbs. But "to go" is also an intransitive verb and we used it as "He has been gone". Is this incorrect form or this is not a passsive voice and here "gone" is being used as adjective not verb?
Thanks in advance.
In the sentence "He has been gone...." has is the verb, and gone is an adjective indicating a state of being. (Note the ellipses.)
Thanks mate....all is crystal clear now.
~~theek he sohail, ab bhi bol dey ye sab jahil hain:D~~
Has been dying fix the clue?