has or had

[Francois]

'I should have' is correct.
'I should of' is wrong, though that's not the first time I see it. I think it's either an ESL mistake (b/c they sound alike) or some sort of slang-ish spelling.

FRC

 

[RonBee]

Say:

• That is not the first time I have seen it.

("I should of" is a mistake sometimes made by native speakers.)

 

[Francois]

Now that's an ESL mistake.

FRC

 

[jack]

I had ran this before and I have no errors. <--correct? What does this mean?
I have ran this before and I have no errors. <--correct? What does this mean?

 

[RonBee]

I had ran this before and I have no errors. <--correct? What does this mean?

Say:

• I had run this before, and I had no errors.

Or:

• I ran this before, and I had no errors.

Outside of context, it is hard to tell exactly what it means, but I would say it was some kind of test in which no mistakes (errors) were found.

I have ran this before and I have no errors. <--correct? What does this mean?

Say:

• I have run this before, and I had no errors.

It is a test that you took (or "ran") before, and you found no mistakes (errors) on it.

 

[jack]

"I have run this before, and I had no errors."

Why is "run" not "ran"? Why don't we use the past participle?

For "had" is it wrong to use "have"? If so, why? I can't use tense consistency here?

 

[Tdol]

The verb is run\ran\run, so it is the past participle. If you want to use tense consistency, then you would have to choose the past tense for the first verb. However, the present perfect works well as the time of the action is past but not specified.

I have run this before, and I had no errors. (Once)
I have run this before, and I have had no errors. (A number of times)

;-)

 

[Casiopea]

Now that's an ESL mistake.

FRC

It's more commonly known as a native speaker error.

have , when contracted, sounds like of:

should have => should've => should of

and so speakers write what they hear: They write "of" instead of "have".

The sound change has to do with syllable final devoicing:

voiced [v] becomes voiceless [f]

 

[Francois]

Now that's an ESL mistake.

It's more commonly known as a native speaker error

I was refering to Ron pulling me up on:

Say:
That is not the first time I have seen it.

I know that some native speakers sometimes use 'of' instead of 'have', that some would write 'helluva' etc. I believe it's more of a fancy spelling than a real error.

TY anyway

FRC

 

[Tdol]

It's more than that- some people will write 'I would of told her'. ;-)

 

[Francois]

Yes, and some people use textspeak, though they know that's obviously not the correct spelling.
Do you mean they write 'I would of' making a genuine mistake?

FRC

 

[Casiopea]

Yes, and some people use textspeak, though they know that's obviously not the correct spelling.
Do you mean they write 'I would of' making a genuine mistake?

FRC

Yup.

 

[jack]

"She is the kindest women you ever see." <--correct?
"She is the kindest women you have ever seen."
"She is the kindest women you had ever seen."

What is the difference in meaning for these sentences?

 

[jack]

"I have never seen him drive the car before." <--why is "drive" not "drove"? How do you know? What is the rule for it?

"I have never seen him drove the car before." <--incorrect? If, so can you tell me what does this mean so i can understand why is this wrong.

I was busy reading what you have said. <--correct?
I was busy reading what you had said. <--correct?
I was busy reading what you have had said. <--correct?
I was busy reading what you had had said. <--correct?

 

[RonBee]

"She is the kindest women you ever see." <--correct?
"She is the kindest women you have ever seen."
"She is the kindest women you had ever seen."

What is the difference in meaning for these sentences?

Both sentences one and three are grammatically incorrect.



(Say: "What are the differences in meaning ....")

 

[RonBee]

"I have never seen him drive the car before." <--why is "drive" not "drove"? How do you know? What is the rule for it?

In that sentence "seen" is functioning as an auxiliary verb, and it can be used only with the base word, "drive".

"I have never seen him drove the car before." <--incorrect? If, so can you tell me what does this mean so i can understand why is this wrong.

Yes, it is incorrect. See above.

I was busy reading what you have said. <--correct?
I was busy reading what you had said. <--correct?
I was busy reading what you have had said. <--correct?
I was busy reading what you had had said. <--correct?

1. Yes.
2. No.
3. No.
4. No.

 

[Francois]

2. is not correct?

FRC

 

[jack]

"I knew I have fun singing it." <--correct? What does it mean?

 

[Casiopea]

"I knew I have fun singing it." <--correct? What does it mean?

1. I knew (that) I would have fun singing it.

knew (past)
would (past)

Note, only one verb can carry tense, so have doesn't change to had.


2. I knew (that) you had fun singing it.

knew (past)
had (past)

 

[jack]

I don't think i would have got sniped. <--incorrect? why?
I don't think i would have get sniped. <--correct? why?

"I don't think i will get sniped." <--correct?
"I don't think i would got sniped." <--incorrect? why? how can i correct this?