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  1. retro's Avatar
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    #1

    since (then)

    1. The airport was built in 1980. Since then two planes have slipped off the runway.
    2. The airport was built in 1980 and two planes have slipped off the runway since.

    My questions are: do the two sentences have the same meaning and can we put "since" in #2 after "have"?

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    #2

    Re: since (then)

    #1 are good sentences.
    #2 should end with 'slipped off the runway since then'. #1 and #2 will have the same meaning.
    Yes, in #2 you can say 'The airport was built in 1980 and two planes have since slipped off the runway.'

  2. retro's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: since (then)

    Quote Originally Posted by 2006 View Post
    #1 are good sentences.
    #2 should end with 'slipped off the runway since then'. #1 and #2 will have the same meaning.
    Yes, in #2 you can say 'The airport was built in 1980 and two planes have since slipped off the runway.'
    Does it make difference in the meaning if "then" in #2 is omitted; should "since" always come after "have". Because I just saw this: "He left home two weeks ago and we haven't heard from him since." To me, this new example and #2 seem to be equivalent.

    Any more suggestions?

    Thank you
    Last edited by retro; 19-Jul-2007 at 15:08.

  3. bianca's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: since (then)

    Both sentences are OK, to me. 'Since' at the end of the sentence is perfectly correct - meaning '(ever) since then', from then up to now. You can even have "since"- with the same meaning - within the sentence. Just like in:

    Two planes have since slipped off the runaway.
    Last edited by bianca; 19-Jul-2007 at 21:00.

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    #5

    Re: since (then)

    Quote Originally Posted by retro View Post
    Does it make difference in the meaning if "then" in #2 is omitted; should "since" always come after "have". Because I just saw this: "He left home two weeks ago and we haven't heard from him since." To me, this new example and #2 seem to be equivalent.

    Any more suggestions?

    Thank you
    #2 just doesn't sound complete to me without 'then' although one would assume that you mean since (1980)(then). Also, you can have a sentence like, The airport was built in 1980 and two planes have slipped off the runway since 2004. (implying that the runway is too old and needs repairs.)

    "Since" doesn't always have to come after "have". (the second sentence of #1)

    "He left home two weeks ago and we haven't heard from him since." sounds fine to me. I guess the difference is that in the original sentence 2 something happened "in 1980", while in the new sentence something happened "two weeks ago". I guess that is the difference that makes the first one sound incomplete to my ear.

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