No one has described England as the anti-Christ yet....Originally Posted by CuriousTDear teachers:
I have a question about a usage I've encountered recently. Could you read the following short passage first? It's about Jessica Lynch and Lynndie England.
"Lynch was lauded as a national hero; England has been lambasted as a national disgrace. While no one has yet to describe England as the anti-Christ they have come close. In the words of one of her neighbours, she is the 'anti-Jessica'."
(quoted from http://www.guardian.co.uk/comment/st...218457,00.html)
Now, what I'm curious about is the part "no one has yet to describe England as the anti-Christ".
I understand that "have yet to do..." means "haven't done...yet". If so, the above sentence can be paraphrased as: "no one hasn't described England as the anti-Christ yet", and it doesn't sound right, like double negation cases. The intended meaning seems to be: "no one hasn't described England as the anti-Christ yet."
How do sentences like the above sound to you? Is this supposed to be a correct usage?
Thank you in advance for your help.