It has been my understanding that words ending in "s" are pronounced the same when they are in the possesive form. "Jesus" and " Jesus' " would then be pronounced the same.
If you make another syllable, like "Jesuses", you have really made a plural and you would be talking about two or more men named Jesus. Am I correct or not. I just want to see if anyone else is on my side.
Yes, I taught college English back when they were teaching Grammar. I have also taught Greek, my major, for 42 years. You can't teach Greek without teaching English, especially these days.