Page 1 of 2 1 2 LastLast
Results 1 to 10 of 20
  1. Bushwhacker's Avatar
    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • Catalan
      • Home Country:
      • Spain
      • Current Location:
      • Spain

    • Join Date: Apr 2007
    • Posts: 1,043
    #1

    Cool Gerund after "to"

    Please, what's the meaning of a verb in gerund after "to"? Sentence at hand I can provide for instance is the same I put for another previous question: ""First blood refers to the act of drawing blood first to instigating the aggression." What's the nuance behind "to instigating" instead of "to instigate"?

    Thank You.

    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • Portuguese
      • Home Country:
      • Tuvalu
      • Current Location:
      • Tuvalu

    • Join Date: Oct 2007
    • Posts: 1,860
    #2

    Re: Gerund after "to"

    i am just a student.

    very good question!

  2. Bushwhacker's Avatar
    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • Catalan
      • Home Country:
      • Spain
      • Current Location:
      • Spain

    • Join Date: Apr 2007
    • Posts: 1,043
    #3

    Cool Re: Gerund after "to"

    Thank You for interest, but could anyone pay attention to that question?



    • Join Date: Jan 2007
    • Posts: 242
    #4

    Re: Gerund after "to"

    For me, it doesn't carry any nuance.
    In fact, it just sounds wrong, I would much prefer the infinitive to instigate being used.

  3. Bushwhacker's Avatar
    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • Catalan
      • Home Country:
      • Spain
      • Current Location:
      • Spain

    • Join Date: Apr 2007
    • Posts: 1,043
    #5

    Cool Re: Gerund after "to"

    Quote Originally Posted by Niall View Post
    For me, it doesn't carry any nuance.
    In fact, it just sounds wrong, I would much prefer the infinitive to instigate being used.
    Thanks; I don't know if it is correct or not in this concrete case, but all we know expressions like "I'm looking forward to hearing from you". My point is "why "to hearing" and not "to hear."? There must be some kind of intention; a will to mean something like an action which is carry out kind of intensively; mustn't it?

    I'll very appreciate your opinion.


    • Join Date: Jan 2007
    • Posts: 242
    #6

    Re: Gerund after "to"

    The gerund (or the present participle) is used after a preposition. This is usually as part of a prepositional verb (that is verb + preposition).
    For example we use the gerund after believe in, rely on or think of.

    The case you mentioned, look forward to, is a phrasal prepositional verb. They are made up of verb + adverb + preposition and therefore, they end in a preposition, and it is necessary to use the gerund.

    We cannot say I look forward to hear from you, we must instead use the gerund, so that the sentence says I look forward to hearing from you.

    Don't hesitate to ask for further explaination.

    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • Romanian
      • Home Country:
      • Romania
      • Current Location:
      • Romania

    • Join Date: Aug 2006
    • Posts: 1,948
    #7

    Re: Gerund after "to"

    Quote Originally Posted by Bushwhacker View Post
    Thanks; I don't know if it is correct or not in this concrete case, but all we know expressions like "I'm looking forward to hearing from you". My point is "why "to hearing" and not "to hear."? There must be some kind of intention; a will to mean something like an action which is carry out kind of intensively; mustn't it?

    I'll very appreciate your opinion.
    The verbal expression to be looking forward to takes a gerund after it. It is an established grammar rule.
    You can say :

    I am looking forward to my vacation [ + noun]

    I am looking forward to hearing from / seeing, etc. you [ + gerund]

    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • Romanian
      • Home Country:
      • Romania
      • Current Location:
      • Romania

    • Join Date: Aug 2006
    • Posts: 1,948
    #8

    Re: Gerund after "to"

    Quote Originally Posted by Bushwhacker View Post
    Please, what's the meaning of a verb in gerund after "to"? Sentence at hand I can provide for instance is the same I put for another previous question: ""First blood refers to the act of drawing blood first to instigating the aggression." What's the nuance behind "to instigating" instead of "to instigate"?

    Thank You.
    The answer might be the following:

    First blood refers to the act of drawing blood first to [ before] instigating [ noun] the aggression. It sounds a little bit weird.


    • Join Date: Jan 2007
    • Posts: 242
    #9

    Re: Gerund after "to"

    In which first to means before?

    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • Romanian
      • Home Country:
      • Romania
      • Current Location:
      • Romania

    • Join Date: Aug 2006
    • Posts: 1,948
    #10

    Re: Gerund after "to"

    Quote Originally Posted by Niall View Post
    In which first to means before?
    It was just a supposition. It may be wrong.

Page 1 of 2 1 2 LastLast

Similar Threads

  1. use of th gerund
    By bieasy in forum Ask a Teacher
    Replies: 1
    Last Post: 17-Aug-2007, 02:16
  2. Gerund or participle?
    By Humble in forum Ask a Teacher
    Replies: 18
    Last Post: 24-Mar-2007, 17:59
  3. Gerund Diagramming Help
    By Tyler07 in forum Analysing and Diagramming Sentences
    Replies: 3
    Last Post: 12-Mar-2007, 22:33
  4. Gerund or Present Participle?
    By atm in forum Ask a Teacher
    Replies: 1
    Last Post: 18-Dec-2006, 14:55
  5. gerund or noun
    By pucubuwi in forum Ask a Teacher
    Replies: 4
    Last Post: 05-Oct-2006, 22:46

Bookmarks

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •