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  1. #1
    imchongjun is offline Member
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    Aug 2007
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    "agree to" vs. "is agreed to"

    Hello, teachers.
    I came across the following sentence:

    Servia must be punished, naturally, but to that, in principle, every nation in Europe is agreed.

    and I wonder why the latter half of the sentence should not be written "but to that, in principle, every nation in Europe agrees". I appreciate very much if you could explain the difference of these two expressions.

  2. #2
    Join Date
    Feb 2008
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    420

    Smile Re: "agree to" vs. "is agreed to"

    'Every nation is agreed' and 'every nation agrees' have the same meaning. 'Is agreed' could be seen as an older but more stately form...often used by the media.

  3. #3
    imchongjun is offline Member
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      • Home Country:
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      • Current Location:
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    Re: "agree to" vs. "is agreed to"

    Thank you for your quick response.
    That is what I wanted to know.
    Thanks a ton.

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