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  1. Unregistered
    Guest
    #1

    grammar

    Hello,

    I would like to know if the phrase 'in the end of 17th century' is grammatically correct?
    Is the phrase equivalent to 'in the late 17th century'?

    I wonder if this sentence is correct, 'I never speak to him again for months'?
    Personally, i think the sentence is a bit odd. Is there another way of saying it?

    The case: Emma used to speak with Adam but she doesn't speak to him anymore and it has been for months now. (Is this sentence grammatically correct?)

    Thanks in advance.


    • Join Date: Nov 2007
    • Posts: 5,409
    #2

    Re: grammar

    I would like to know if the phrase 'in the end of 17th century' is grammatically correct?
    No. You could say, 'towards the end of the 17th century' or 'at the end of..'
    Is the phrase equivalent to 'in the late 17th century'?
    Nearly. 'in the late 17th century' places it roughly any time 1680 onwards. 'At the end' would imply any year 1690 onwards, and 'towards the end' would imply roughly 1685 -1690, perhaps even 1685-1695

    I wonder if this sentence is correct, 'I never speak to him again for months'?
    Personally, i think the sentence is a bit odd. Is there another way of saying it?

    You could say:
    I stopped speaking to him months ago.

    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • English
      • Home Country:
      • Scotland
      • Current Location:
      • United States

    • Join Date: Mar 2008
    • Posts: 9
    #3

    Re: grammar

    For your sentence: "I never speak to him again for months", I would suggest saying "I never spoke to him again for months". The reason is that the sentence suggests that months went by without speaking to him, but that you finally did speak to him.


    • Join Date: Jul 2007
    • Posts: 554
    #4

    Re: grammar

    "I never speak to him again for months"

    maybe

    I didn't speak to him again for months


  2. Newbie
    Student or Learner

    • Join Date: Mar 2008
    • Posts: 1
    #5

    Re: grammar

    no, it's wrong. You could say:
    I haven't spoken to him for months, or something like that.


    • Join Date: Nov 2007
    • Posts: 5,409
    #6

    Re: grammar

    no, it's wrong. You could say:
    I haven't spoken to him for months, or something like that.



    Coloju: You're confusing two different meanings that the tenses make clear:

    'I didn't speak to him again for months' - but now, we are on speaking terms again.

    'I haven't spoken to him for months' - either because of circumstances (they just haven't bumped into each other) or because of a falling out, they haven't spoken for months, and still have not said a word to each other.

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