Thanks. Let me start over. Please see the sentence below.
The fact that current market prices are 20% higher than in-place prices for the contracts leases maturing until 2010, bodes well for [ ]same store growth in future quarters.
My question is why there is no 'the' before 'same-store growth' even though it has been clearly specified by 'in future quarters'. new2grammar had used the same logic (I think) to justify 'the' in the following sentence at the begining of the post.
Which of the following sentences is more correct and why?. The only difference is 'the' before 'complications'.
1. Closed-end funds allow small investors to invest in a diversified portfolio of real
estate assets without the complications of operating responsibilities.
2. Closed-end funds allow small investors to invest in a diversified portfolio of real
estate assets without complications of operating responsibilities.
Ist sentence sounds correct because we are specifying what is the major complication and that is the operation responsibilities, so we need to use definite article - 'the'