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    • Join Date: Apr 2008
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    #1

    What does it mean?

    Does anyone understand the following sentence? I just want to have a general understanding, to understand the basic logic of the sentence.

    Further, as attested by the occurrence of a number of theory-non-conforming instances of ironic speech, most purely pragmatic views of conversational irony have a limited sphere of explanatory sway.


    Any alternative wording?


    Many thanks!

  1. beascarpetta's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: What does it mean?

    Quote Originally Posted by palinkasocsi View Post
    Further, as attested by the occurrence of a number of theory-non-conforming instances of ironic speech, most purely pragmatic views of conversational irony have a limited sphere of explanatory sway.
    Moreover,there are several examples in ironic speech that run contrary to any established theories of irony and show that assessing samples of irony in conversation solely from a purely pragmatic point of view does little to explain the basic concept of irony.

    roughly put.


    • Join Date: Apr 2008
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    #3

    Re: What does it mean?

    Dear Beascarpetta,

    That's it! You are the first native who got the meaning right. I was just wondering whether the sentence makes sense at all. Do you think it is convoluted English? Any other formal suggestions?

    Thanks.

    Palinkasocsi
    Last edited by palinkasocsi; 31-May-2008 at 10:46.

  2. Soup's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: What does it mean?

    I believe the author is saying,
    Most of the explanations stemming from a purely pragmatic approach to conversational irony are limited in scope and therefore cannot be applied across the board, as evidenced by the number of exceptions to the rule that cannot be accounted for.

    Further, as attested by the occurrence of a number of theory-non-conforming instances of ironic speech, most purely pragmatic views of conversational irony have a limited sphere of explanatory sway.

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