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  1. paochai01's Avatar
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    #1

    Phrase

    Hi, guys!

    Is the phrase 'get someone do something' grammatically incorrect? Our English supervisor said it was wrong and it should be 'get someone TO DO something'. I think both are acceptable, right?

    Any help from the following:
    Anglika, banderas, Barb_D, BobK, David L., RonBee, Tdol

    Thanks!

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    #2

    Re: Phrase

    I'm not a teacher.

    'Get someone to do something' is correct. The 'to' should be there.
    On the other hand,
    'Let someone do something' is correct.(without 'to')
    'Make someone do something' is also correct. (without 'to')
    Last edited by tedtmc; 30-May-2008 at 17:20.

  2. paochai01's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: Phrase

    Yeah, I know those phrases for make, let, etc.
    But this one I can't accept. Nothing seems wrong with 'Get someone do/train/ask/buy/etc. someone/something..

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    #4

    Re: Phrase

    Quote Originally Posted by paochai01 View Post
    Nothing seems wrong with 'Get someone do/train/ask/buy/etc. someone/something..
    I think the sentences are not correct without 'to' before the verbs.


    • Join Date: Apr 2008
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    #5

    Re: Phrase

    Get smb to do smth


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    #6

    Re: Phrase

    Quote Originally Posted by tedtmc View Post
    I'm not a teacher.

    'Get someone to do something' is correct. The 'to' should be there.
    On the other hand,
    'Let someone do something' is correct.(without 'to')
    'Make someone do something' is also correct. (without 'to')
    Perfectly correct tedtmc.

  3. banderas's Avatar
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    #7

    Re: Phrase

    Quote Originally Posted by paochai01 View Post
    Hi, guys!

    Is the phrase 'get someone do something' grammatically incorrect? Our English supervisor said it was wrong and it should be 'get someone TO DO something'. I think both are acceptable, right?

    Any help from the following:
    Anglika, banderas, Barb_D, BobK, David L., RonBee, Tdol

    Thanks!
    You probably thought that "Get someone do something" is acceptable because it is similar to "Have someone do something". Your supervisor was right.

  4. paochai01's Avatar
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    #8
    Quote Originally Posted by banderas View Post
    You probably thought that "Get someone do something" is acceptable because it is similar to "Have someone do something". Your supervisor was right.
    So 'get someone do something' is COMPLETELY wrong?

    I know that 'get someone TO do something' is right but what if I would not use the infinitive and just the base form? Is it totally erroneous/unacceptable? How come some Americans use it?
    Last edited by paochai01; 30-May-2008 at 18:55.

  5. banderas's Avatar
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    #9

    Re: Phrase

    Quote Originally Posted by paochai01 View Post
    So 'get someone do something' is COMPLETELY wrong?

    I know that 'get someone TO do something' is right but what if I would not use the infinitive and just the base form? Is it totally erroneous/unacceptable? How come some Americans use it?
    According to grammar rules it is wrong but all of us know that native speakers sometimes break the rules for some reason.
    Some do it intentionally and others unconsciously.
    I feel some American members may have a precise answer to your question.


    • Join Date: Oct 2006
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    #10

    Re: Phrase

    Quote Originally Posted by paochai01 View Post
    So 'get someone do something' is COMPLETELY wrong?

    I know that 'get someone TO do something' is right but what if I would not use the infinitive and just the base form? Is it totally erroneous/unacceptable? How come some Americans use it?
    Are you sure that this is what you heard, and not "let someone do something"?

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