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  1. Unregistered
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    #1

    Help!

    All things considered, this one looks desperately tight but Marquez showed he can handle talented southpaw punchers six months ago against PACQUIAO, even in defeat, and one can hardly class it a defeat given how well the Mexican fought.

    Is the bit from Pacquiao grammatically correct?

  2. Raymott's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: Help!

    Quote Originally Posted by Unregistered View Post
    All things considered, this one looks desperately tight but Marquez showed he can handle talented southpaw punchers six months ago against PACQUIAO, even in defeat, and one can hardly class it a defeat given how well the Mexican fought.

    Is the bit from Pacquiao grammatically correct?
    Yes, it's grammatically correct. But it doesn't make sense.
    1. How could Marquez have shown that he can handle southpaw punchers if he actually lost? Does this mean he handles them by losing?
    2. If he was actually defeated, how could it hardly have been a defeat; OR
    3. If one could hardly class it as a defeat, how do we know how Marquez handles southpaw punchers in a defeat?
    It sounds like the writer wants it both ways. I think he should re-write the sentence after he decides whether Marquez was defeated or not.

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    #3

    Exclamation Re: Help!

    Quote Originally Posted by Unregistered View Post
    All things considered, this one looks desperately tight but Marquez showed he can could handle talented southpaw punchers like PACQUIAO six months ago against , even in defeat, and one can could hardly classify it as a defeat given how well the Mexican fought.

    Is the bit from Pacquiao grammatically correct?
    Delete words underlined.


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    #4

    Re: Help!

    Thank you both. Marquez was robbed, incidentally, so he did actually 'handle' Pacquiao, but I understand your logic. However, I am currently hung up on such passages as the above. My instincts would describe 'even in defeat' as one of those phrases which could be plucked out of the clause and the clause would still make sense without it. Obviously, in the above case, it wouldn't.
    All crass remarks aside, why is my radar so far off?

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    #5

    Re: Help!

    Quote Originally Posted by smasher44 View Post
    Thank you both. Marquez was robbed, incidentally, so he did actually 'handle' Pacquiao, but I understand your logic. However, I am currently hung up on such passages as the above. My instincts would describe 'even in defeat' as one of those phrases which could be plucked out of the clause and the clause would still make sense without it. Obviously, in the above case, it wouldn't.
    All crass remarks aside, why is my radar so far off?
    Because Marquez was officially defeated; and you believe he was robbed (i.e. not defeated). It's hard to write consistently with a conflict like that.


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    #6

    Re: Help!

    Quote Originally Posted by Raymott View Post
    Because Marquez was officially defeated; and you believe he was robbed (i.e. not defeated). It's hard to write consistently with a conflict like that.
    EVERYONE believes he was robbed, except the three blind mice.

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    #7

    Re: Help!

    Quote Originally Posted by smasher44 View Post
    EVERYONE believes he was robbed, except the three blind mice.
    OK. I've never even heard of Marquez, but I'm assuming the referee or judges and the record books (or whatever you have in boxing) aren't included in "EVERYONE". But we're not here to argue about sport.
    Maybe you could write about an "official defeat" as opposed to a "moral defeat". Of course, I have no idea why your "radar's off" at the moment. But your grammar's fine.

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