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    #1

    Having been vs when they have ( A GMAT question)

    Some patients who do not respond to therapies for depression may simply have received inadequate treatment, (having, for example, been prescribed a drug at a dosage too low to be effective or having been taken off a drug too soon.)

    A. having, for example, been prescribed a drug at a doesage too low to be effective or having been taken off a drug too soon.

    B. for example, when they ahve a drug prescription with a dosage too low to be effective, or been

    Please explain as to why B is not correct? in A what parts of speech is for example?

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    #2

    Re: Having been vs when they have ( A GMAT question)

    The 'have' is niot abn auxuiliary verb in the firstn part, so the past participle on its own doesn't fit.

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    #3

    Re: Having been vs when they have ( A GMAT question)

    I seem to have got a little. Could you please elaborate more?


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    #4

    Re: Having been vs when they have ( A GMAT question)

    In choice B, the first part, isn't constructed as the rest of the sentence (having been +past participle - which make sense because doctors prescribe drugs not patients themselves, right?) so it just doesn't sort of forward that construction to the last part of the sentence, which makes it incorrect.

    Some patients who do not respond to therapies for depression may simply have received inadequate treatment, (having, for example, been prescribed a drug at a dosage too low to be effective or having been taken off a drug too soon.)

    B. for example, when they have (-meaning possesion) a drug prescription with a dosage too low to be effective, or been (taken off..... - construction is not complete, you need aux., special verb: having (have) like in A "having been taken off").





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    #5

    Re: Having been vs when they have ( A GMAT question)

    In choice B, the first part, isn't constructed as the rest of the sentence (having been +past participle - which make sense because doctors prescribe drugs not patients themselves, right?) so it just doesn't sort of forward that construction to the last part of the sentence, which makes it incorrect.

    Some patients who do not respond to therapies for depression may simply have received inadequate treatment, (having, for example, been prescribed a drug at a dosage too low to be effective or having been taken off a drug too soon.)

    B. for example, when they have (-meaning possesion) a drug prescription with a dosage too low to be effective, or been (taken off..... - construction is not complete, you need aux., special verb: having (have) like in A "having been taken off").


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    #6

    Re: Having been vs when they have ( A GMAT question)

    awesome awesome!:) i discerned it ok. But your explanation made it ample clear:)

    also Today i went through participles. Having been prescribed a drug is same as after the drug has been presribed, correct?

    Also why can't that 'for example', which acts as an adverb here, be kept before having?

    thanks!:)


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    #7

    Re: Having been vs when they have ( A GMAT question)

    Well,
    Having been prescribed a drug (that a person got a drug);
    the drug has been prescribed (means that the drug was "given" to a person).
    I think that "for example" before "having" is acceptable, however it's more correct the way it is. Think about: I have always been....

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