Hi everyone, I have one query; My English Prof. argued about the legitimacy of the expression "under any aspect" that I used in an academic work.
Indeed, the whole sentece was as follows: With the introduction of the zero the Arabs revolutionised medieval European Culture "under any conceivable aspect".
Is it ungrammatical?
Who's right and who's wrong?
Thank you ever so much beforehand.
Firstly, the preposition used with 'aspect' is, 'from':
'from the aspect of...'
Secondly, 'aspect' means/refers to a particular part or feature of something; a specific way in which something can be considered.
So, the meaning of the second half of the sentence becomes, 'in any specific way you care to consider it'
but not : 'any conceivable feature of culture' since the introduction of the concept of zero can only 'revolutionize' those 'aspects' of culture already in existence in medieval Europe.
Which then brings us to 'any aspect' coming after 'revolutionizes', since the latter specifically refers to ONE aspect - the utter foundation, whole basis of something; a radical change (one going to the very foundation of something)
So, you have two conflicting ideas, that of 'revolutionize', and that suggested by 'any conceivable aspect'.
the plausibility of your assertion: it may have revolutionized mathematics, but the laws of physics and chemistry would hold, not be revolutionized; and to what extent would it even influence, never mind revolutionize, religion (apart from arousing opposition to it perhaps), folk dancing, music, cockfighting, jousting, tapestry-making etc etc.
Last edited by David L.; 04-Oct-2008 at 14:44.