I am giving a lesson on causative constructions tomorrow, and one of the tasks involves the students deciding which form of have to choose (gap fill).
I had/I have are two of the choices, and these are perfectly straightforward, but there's another: having.
One of the sentences reads:
having my eyes done made me see that I really could change my face.
Can anyone explain this use of the "ing" form?
Is having my eyes done functioning as a nominal phrase? If so, how is the rest of the sentence explained in relation to it?
Last edited by colloquium; 22-Oct-2008 at 19:48.
Hi, I'm not a teacher, just love languages. My thoughts are that "having my eyes done" could be replaced by "it". "Having" would be used as a gerund (verbal noun) and therefore qualify the expression as a nominal phrase (a noun surrounded by other items (words) that all in some way characterise that noun). These two pages helped me:
Noun phrase - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Nominal group (language - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia)
Thanks for making me think about that one!