Student or Learner
I'd like to ask speakers of British English.
"I love Mary none the less for her faults."
I found this sentence in a textbook, but as far as I know Americans and Canadians don't use none the less like this. They say when they use "none the less", they use it as an adverb without for and put the three words together like below.
Mary has a lot of faults. Nonetheless, I love her.
Is this also the case in British English? Or do you use "none the less for..." like the sentence above?
"I love Mary none the less for all her faults."
This is correct English, maybe a bit archaic but none the less correct, even so.
were sometimes sung with a "for" instead of a "with". Read more here: Love Songs Lyrics and Words to - It Had To Be You - by Frank Sinatranobody else[, the Internet lyrics I found put a comma in here, but although Francis Albert puts a pause in here there's no syntactical need for a comma] gave me a thrill
With all your faults, I
Love you still
So it's "for her faults" in your quote; the "for" doesn't form a specially British variant of 'none the less', which is an adverbial phrase.
What may be a particularly British thing is the preference for a three-word phrase rather than a one-word adverb. There was an odd-looking rule, when I worked for OUP, that "none the less" was a phrase but "nevertheless" was a single word. This is a behaviour I've acquired, but I'm not particularly disturbed when people behave otherwise!