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    #1

    having done

    As the recent flap over Edmund Morris' " Dutch " demonstrated , having read a book is no prerequisite for having an opinion about it.
    That sentence is taken from COCA.
    Once some teachers told me that having done could not be used as a subject.
    The usage above of having done is rare.
    But it is grammatically correct.
    Am I right?
    I am looking forward to your help.
    Thanks in advance.

  1. BobK's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: having done

    Quote Originally Posted by norwolf View Post
    As the recent flap over Edmund Morris' " Dutch " demonstrated , having read a book is no prerequisite for having an opinion about it.
    That sentence is taken from COCA.
    Once some teachers told me that having done could not be used as a subject.
    The usage above of having done is rare.
    But it is grammatically correct.
    Am I right?
    I am looking forward to your help.
    Thanks in advance.
    I'm not sure what your teachers were talking about. It may not be common, but there's nothing wrong with it.

    b

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    #3

    Re: having done

    Quote Originally Posted by BobK View Post
    I'm not sure what your teachers were talking about. It may not be common, but there's nothing wrong with it.

    b
    Thank you, Bobk.
    He said it should be:
    ...., reading a book is no prerequisite for having an opinion about it.

  2. Raymott's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: having done

    Quote Originally Posted by norwolf View Post
    Thank you, Bobk.
    He said it should be:
    ...., reading a book is no prerequisite for having an opinion about it.
    That's not as correct semantically. It could imply that the time you were referencing was any time during the reading of the book. But it's not. You're referring specifically to the time after which you have read the book.

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