"You have a nice watch." and "You've got a nice watch." , I know they both mean the same. But in place of the latter one, I often hear "You got a nice watch." also.
So my question is What is the actual difference between ['ve got] and [got]? Just the abbreviation? Some say they mean the same and they are interchangeable. But at the same time many others suggest that one shouldn't use [got] , should stick with ['ve got] .
What is the actual picture? Can anyone explain? How these:have, 've got, got, are actually used in real everyday conversation.
Pronunciation is the cuprit here. When you say I've got in fast speech, the sound represented by the letter <v> is devoiced to [f], which is barely audible. That you can hardly head [f] makes it seem as if there isn't an [f] sound at all. The result, what we hear, I got.
Written English: I've got
Spoken English (fast speech): I got
Non-Standard English, which is OK to use--it's the name 'Non-Standards' that's the problem--houses "I got". I use it... in spoken English.
I'm merely observing the Destructive Process in language change that has led to 'you got some guts, man' being a style of speech, and the actual intended words in individuals from a particular social stratum. In this instance, it is not a 'mishearing' but the complete absence of any intent, or even knowledge of the correct grammatical form to utter.
Or is it your intention to perpetuate the destruction of human dignity and spirit?
My additional observation as to the occurrence of this type of speech, can do that!?
Re-read my post and tell me where the offence is, please, as I find your remark uncalled for and highly offensive.