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    #1

    grammar

    It has been ten years since we have known each other.
    It has been ten years since we knew each other.


    It has been ten years since I lived here.
    It has been ten years since I have lived here.

    Any wrong with these sentences?
    each couple of sentence exactly mean the same?
    Please.
    Last edited by puzzle; 24-Mar-2009 at 17:34.

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    #2

    Re: grammar

    Dear Puzzle:

    Quote Originally Posted by puzzle View Post
    It has been ten years since we have known each other.
    We have known each other for ten years.
    It has been ten years since we met.
    It has been ten years since we knew each other.
    We haven't seen each other for ten years.
    It's been ten years since we were close.


    It has been ten years since I lived here.
    It has been ten years since I have lived here.
    I have lived here for ten years.
    It's been ten years since I lived here. (I don't live here now.)

    Any wrong with these sentences?
    Yes.
    each couple of sentence exactly mean the same?
    No.
    Please.
    I hope this is helpful,

    Petra

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    #3

    Re: grammar

    I pick this from a dictionary:

    It has been 10 years since he joined the army.

    Does the sentence mean he is not in the army any more?

  1. konungursvia's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: grammar

    No, to join is an inchoate verb, a verb that only signifies the very beginning of a state. We use such verbs much more in English than in Chinese. For example, my students in Hong Kong would say "Just a minute, I have to wear my glasses" and then put the glasses on. We would say "I have to put on my glasses" and then wear them from that moment on. So, we can join the army one day, and then for a thousand times a thousand days, be in the army. For the first day only, we say join, for the other million, we just use "be" in the army.

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    #5

    Re: grammar

    It's two years since she was ill.
    It's two years since she has been ill.

    Any difference between these? Please.

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    #6

    Re: grammar

    Dear Puzzle:

    Quote Originally Posted by puzzle View Post
    It's two years since she was ill.
    This means that two years ago she was ill with a specific ailment. The sentence refers the listener back to that illness.
    It's two years since she has been ill.
    This means that she has been well for two years. The sentence refers to her two years of good health. People would be more likely to say, 'She hasn't been ill for two years.'

    Any difference between these? Please.

    Petra

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