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    #1

    comprehension question. please help me!!

    Hello!

    I am very confused about the following article that compares the legal styem in Scotland and the rest of the Uk. My main question : 1) is the author saying that eventually the legal system in Scotland is simiar to the rest of the UK? 2) When the author says ' landholding', is he comparing the landhoding between scotland and the rest of the UK? Or is he saying that the legal matter about ' landholding' has changed after the Act of UNion in Scotland?


    For historic reasons, the legal system in Sctoland differs from that of the rest of the UK. The Scottish legal system is based on Roman law. After the Act of Union , the Scottish system was allowed to stay in place; however, most of the law is the same and the law laid down by Parliament is almost followed in Sctoland. The major area of difference is in landholding. THe system for the rest of the UK is based on Norman Practice; Case law . There used to be travelling courts which tried cases and established precedents which were then followed by other courts.

  1. Soup's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: comprehension question. please help me!!

    Hi bosun

    1) No.
    2a) Yes; 2b) No.


    • The legal system in Scotland is different from the legal system of the rest of the UK.
    • The Scottish legal system is based on Roman law.
    • True: After the Act of Union, the [Roman-law based] Scottish system was allowed to stay in place.
    • however, [it's not that different as] most of the [Scottish] law is the same [as the law of the rest of the UK]
    • and the law laid down by Parliament is almost followed in Scotland.
    • The major area of difference is in landholding.
    • The [landholding] system for the rest of the UK [not Scotland] is based on Norman Practice; Case law. [Meaning that] There used to be travelling courts which tried cases and established precedents which were then followed by other courts.
    Last edited by Soup; 23-May-2009 at 17:22.

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    #3

    Re: comprehension question. please help me!!

    Still confusing. Have a look at the third sentence that starts with however.... Doesn't it imply that the two laws between the sctoland and the rest of the UK is similar? Or when you say legal system, does it involve different meaning from law?

  2. Soup's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: comprehension question. please help me!!

    It says that both legal systems are pretty much the same, with the exception of a few minor differences (which the author doesn't go into) and one major difference, landholding. The author doesn't explain where the two systems differ but goes on to say that,
    "The system for the rest of the UK is based on Norman Practice; Case law. [Which means,] There used to be travelling courts which tried cases and established precedents which were then followed by other courts."
    In answer to your question about the transitional device however, it expresses the following:
    After the Act of Union, the Scottish legal system which is based on Roman law was allowed to stay in place; however [nevertheless/but, there really isn't that much of a difference between the two systems, as] most of the [Scottish] law is the same [as the rest of the UK] and [so] the law laid down by Parliament is almost followed in Scotland.

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